21

The "Modim anachnu lach" in davening is a quotation from Divrei Hayamim I 29:13. "L'cha" becomes "lach" because of the etnachta, which is a pause in the pasuk.


18

When the word stands on its own, with its own trup-mark, it's אֵת, with a tzeireh. When it's attached to the next word with a dash and therefore does not have its own trup-mark, it's אֶת, with a segol. I think I learned this in high school; unfortunately, I don't know a more precise source. I'm not sure what would be the underlying reason behind some ...


16

Malbim (to Ps. 69:19) draws the following distinction: גאל means to redeem someone or something because of your relationship. (The cases in Lev. 25 where a person has to sell his property, or even himself into slavery, and is "redeemed" by himself or a close relative, are all described with this root.) פדה means to redeem someone or something because of ...


15

The Avudraham discusses this at length. He brings several different classification methods offered by different people. It seems that each classification method covers a large percentage of the cases, but there are some exceptions. The Abudraham then discusses some of the exceptions. First he brings the opinion of Rabbeinu Tam (brought in yydl's answer): ...


15

I would recommend William Wickes' treatise on the Taamei Emet. You are describing a revia mugrash, as distinct from a revia gadol or revia katon. It is indeed a disjunctive accent: To really understand its function, you should familiarize yourself with Wickes' description of the continuous dichotomy. But the pasuk is first divided at the etnachta (or ...


15

The Mahara"l of Prauge, in his commentary to Megilas Esther called Ohr Chadash, (after offering the more basic suggestion that this denotes something Mordechai would do on a constant basis), explains that even when Mordechai had an option to use an alternate route, he would make a point of going in front of Haman and not bowing down. The Ohr Hachayim ...


14

Grammatically, I guess "nafkei minah" would have to be the correct plural if there are two practical differences emerging from one distinction, or "nafkei minayhu" if they're completely disjoint. (See Avodah Zarah 28b and Shabbos 23b, respectively, although in neither place is the expression being used in the sense of "a practical difference or outcome.") ...


14

The original siddur did not include a version for women. Changes to the format for women began later on. R. Jacob Emden (in his siddur commentary) suggested emending the morning blessings for women, but didn't recommend it. Chid"a (Avodat haKodesh 2 5 22) allowed the changes, along with Eshel Avraham (the Buchacher, OC 46 4) and Rivvos Efraim (1 37 2) ...


14

The following information is recorded on the Mechon Mamre website: בתנ"כים שלנו יש גם סימני הפרשייות {פ} {ס} {ר} {ש} שהם מסמנים פרשה פתוחה, פרשה סתומה, סוף שורה בשירות מסויימות, ושורה ריקה (או שורות ריקות בסוף ספר).‏ My translation: In our Tanakhs there are also [the following] disjunctive symbols: פ,‎ ס,‎ ר,‎ ש, which stand for "...


14

From Soncino's intro to Seder Moed: "It might be observed that the designation 'Mo'ed' is in the singular, as distinct from the plural forms used to designate the other Orders, e.g., Nashim, Nezikin, etc. It has been suggested that the singular is here specially used to avoid the confusion that might arise through the employment of the plural Seder Mo'adim (...


14

From what I can tell, either way you accent this word is probably fine. My understanding, based on Biblical grammar My understanding is that the accent in this case goes on the 'mo' syllable1, due to the rule of "nasog achor." This rule says that when multi-syllabic Word A is followed (without disjunctive cantillation) by Word B, and Word B has an accent ...


14

The tav is one of the beged kefet letters, which always takes a dagesh kal, when it starts a new syllable after a previously closed one (i.e. the previous syllable ends with a consonant). To quote from the relevant Wikipedia article: In Hebrew writing with niqqud, a dot in the center of one of these letters, called dagesh ( ּ ), marks the plosive ...


13

I linked in the comments to the question to an article by Dan Rabinowitz published by Hakirah journal regarding Jewish sources pertaining to the origin of the nekudos. [Note that although the taamim of the Tanach are not mentioned throughout the article, it seems implicit in most of the sources (and in the main source, actually explicit) that the same ...


13

HaMaor Volume 46 Number 3 Page 26 says that since all the Yomim Tovim are going to be nullified besides Purim when Moshiach comes therefore it is called Moed in singular form as the only Mesechta remaining will be Megila. Otzar Kol Minhagei Yishurin Siman 7 * note says that since the names of the Shisha Sidrei Mishna are based on the Pasuk והיה אמונת עתיך ...


13

The word is אֵת. When the word is "joined" with the next word with a makaf "־" then they become treated as one long word, and there is no longer an accent on that syllable. Unaccented closed syllables (unlike accented closed syllables) take short vowels, so the vowel shifts to its shorter counterpart: tzere -> segol. You can also see this same phenomenon in ...


12

The form 'כְּתוּבָה' certainly exists, as you state; it is the passive participle of the root כתב, and means "written", as in: "נבואתו כתובה על הקיר" = "his prophecy is written on the wall". However, this is not the same as the noun which designates a "marriage contract". Although there are exceptions, for the most part nouns with specific meanings are not ...


11

I posed this question to a tenured professor, whose PhD was in Aramaic Biblical Exegesis, and who is a published expert on several Semitic languages. This is what he wrote (edited for brevity; it was over several email exchanges over several months): Nafka minnah means the "thing that come out from it" The plural will therefore ought be "the things that ...


11

In discussing laws associated with consoling mourners, Rabbi Moshe Feinstein (Igrot Moshe OC 5:20:21) uses the phrase in its singular masculine form: המקום ינחם אותך Rabbi Menashe Klein (Mishneh Halachot 4:144) offers condolences to the recipient of the responsa on the recent loss of his mother, also using the singular masculine form.


11

I'm fascinated by the midrashic answers presented for this! Are there more? From a scholarly perspective, the increased use of the participle in place of the narrative waw-consecutive imperfect (wayiqtol) form is a classic feature of Late Biblical Hebrew (LBH). To unpack that a bit... What Modern Hebrew treats as the "present tense" (words like molekh, ...


11

Ohr Chadash - Maharal M'Prag asks this question and answers that Mordechai intentionally made sure to be in the areas where Haman was going to show he was not going to bow down. לא יכרע, זהו אף שהיה יכול מרדכי ללכת בדרך אחרת שלא יהיה פוגע בו ולא יכעס המן


11

Yes, the Minchas Elazar was very makpid (strict) on both dikduk (grammar) and wording. His hakpada (strictness) is a major subject in the preface to the current main Munkacser siddur, Tzvi Tiferes. It outlines both commonly ignored rules, and points out that the siddur includes clear markings for mil'eil/mil'ra and sh'va na/nach. It also brings sources for ...


10

As avi answered, (1) Lach is an acceptable form for males in Biblical Hebrew. I think that one will typically find this in more polite speech. More than that, (3). It is an alternation in Biblical Hebrew for the pausal form. Just as Lemech becomes Lamech at an etnachta or silluq (or sof pasuk), so does Lecha become Lach in these positions. Prayer is based,...


10

Chizkuni says that Yitzchak is trying to include children Rivka may have if she remarries after he dies. חזקוני בראשית פרק כז פסוק כט בני אמך: אם היא תנשא עוד אחרי מותי. Note: This deals with Yitzchak's health issues but assumes that Rivka's health was significantly better. If you take the Midrash's timeline, then Rivka was 37 years younger than ...


10

No, it doesn't change the meaning. The letter bes that starts that word appears with a dot in it usually, but without one after a word (in the same phrase) that ends in an open syllable. (Usually.) The pronunciation changes between these two forms, but not the meaning. It's not unique to this word, either, but true of all words that start with a bes, gimel, ...


10

The source for this recitation is Tractate Soferim (20:4). Aramaic was a major lingustic influence on halachic literature in Babylonia during the Geonic period when that tractate was composed, and in Aramaic the plural form ends with a nun rather than a mem.


10

This is the standard "Vav ha-hipuch" of Biblical grammar, which reverses the future tense to the past. "Yikra" == "he will call." "Ve-yikra" == "and he will call." "VA-yikra" == "[and] he called." (It's actually unclear whether the vav hahipuch also functions as an "and." Most translators include the "and", though Rabbi Aryeh Kaplan's Living Torah doesn'...


10

R. Yaakov Sappir had the same question about 150 years ago and asked the community in Aleppo to check the Aleppo Codex for a final ruling. They reported that בשגם has only Patch vowels. You can't ask for a better source than that. As for the specific claim about all printed Chumashim older than 50 years ago, R. Wolf Heidenheim's popular 1818 Chumash "Meor ...


9

I have a good friend who says "Shalom Alecha" to me during kiddush levana. In fact this is the nusach brought in the by the Rama in the Shulchan Aruch (OC 426:2) and it's also in the Tur (OC 426). (Note that the Bach there comments that this is the proper version of the text.) I always smile and respond "Aleichem Shalom."


9

I've done a bit of research on this in the last couple of months and it seems that most everyone is in agreement that the "מו" form is used in poetic contexts to denote the third person. It may very well be a form of archaism only found in Biblical poetry. This is why it is found only in places like Tehillim or Iyov, and in the Torah only within poetic ...


9

To posit some sort of "prophetic perfect tense" or the like is entirely superfluous. I am confident that one is unable to grammatically distinguish between regular and "prophetic" usage. However we do find examples where a prophet will speak from a point of view in which a future event is seen as having transpired, see Numbers 24:17 for example. This is ...


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