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According to the masoretic tradition of Tiberias, a shewa under a mem which is preceded by a word-initial הַֽ־ with a gaʿya (meteg) is often pronounced naʿ. In many of these cases, the shewa is shown explicitly as a hatef patah in the Aleppo Codex. The word למנצח in Psalms 20 (or indeed, anywhere) does not have a ga`ya nor a hatef vowel under the lamed. ...


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First of all, realize that there is some debate about this; the Tanach Simanim, for example, has a sheva nach on the word למנצח and the Tikkun Simanim has a sheva nach for similar examples (see, e.g., הַֽמְדַבֵּ֥ר in Genesis 45:12 but also many others). On the other hand, the Koren siuddur agrees with Artscroll. In general, if you take a word that starts ...


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The Talmud (Sanhedrin 91b) proves "resurrection of the dead" from this seemingly grammatical error: It has been taught: R. Meir said, Whence do we know resurrection from the Torah? From the verse, Then shall Moses and the children of Israel sing this song unto the Lord: not sang but shall sing is written: thus resurrection is taught in the Torah. ...


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Let's divide the verse into two parts: נשאו נהרות ה'—נשאו נהרות קולם and ישאו נהרות דכים Each part is one sentence. The first one is broken up poetically by a caesura, around which both the subject and verb are repeated. So the reason "נשאו" and "נהרות" are identical in each of their appearances is simply that they are repetitions of the same word....


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I can only answer you first question. Grammatically, נשאו is past tense while ישאו is future tense.


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This question is in fact dealt with by Rashi on the spot, who says that the first ה is redundant, and this has the same meaning as מלך המשפט, citing scriptural precedents for this phrasing. Basically - this is an unusual, anomalous usage which חז"ל chose for some reason, but the normative way of saying this would be מלך המשפט - king of justice. Thanks to @...


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אַשְׁרֵי is grammatically, as you note, a plural construct noun. So it isn't obligated to agree with the word following it, as in יְדֵי הָאִישׁ "the man's (s) hands (pl)." If we translated word-by-word, אַשְׁרֵי הָאִישׁ would mean "the man's happinesses." There is one more word that is used in a similar construction, אַחֲלֵי אֲדֹנִי (2 Kings 5:3; see also ...


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I would take an example from the book of Daniel, which has a lot of Aramaic. Luckily Keter Aram Tzova exists for this book (and the people of Aram Tzova spoke Aramaic). And Keter Aram Tzova has the "stresses" (milel/milra) annotated. See, for example, Daniel perek gimel (chapter 3) https://www.mgketer.org/mikra/35/3/1 Under these assumptions, milra wins :)


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The question is entirely apt, because it gets to the heart of the nature of the possessive form in Hebrew, called "construct state" in English and "סמיכות" in Hebrew. The question recognizes that the first term in a possessive relationship between two nouns, (called a "construct chain," which can include any number of nouns from two, on up) is the term that ...


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For ולמדה: that doesn't mean "it's not a mapik hei". It means "this word doesn't appear anywhere else with a mapik hei". You'd be right in normal Hebrew, but mesorah language is it's own code. For נשבעתי: the Keser, as quoted in the note, has a patach, so that's what I personally use. You can see the Keser yourself at aleppocodex.org. In this particular ...


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I have not been able to find a direct verb usage of melech. However, it's possible that the term means "takes advice / council". See Nechemia 5:7.


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Sephradim say "she'Atah". And there are other cases of "sha'Atah", eg in Emes veYatziv. In the Torah, you will not find a "she-" prefix. HQBH uses "asher". (Nor the "kishe-" for when / whenever.) In early Navi, you'll find "sha-". Not too often, but one case is in Shofetim 6:17, when Gid'on refers to Hashem as "sha'Atah". (Another is the two occurrences of ...


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