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The Gemorah in Nedorim 20b brings a list of 9/10 "warnings"/"prohibitions" on sexual relationships with one's wife, with rape being the first. However, the Gemmorah does not mention any punishment, besides the"Heavenly" punishment of having troublesome children from such relations.

Ra"n adds in place that such relations are a sort of transgression, but not a clear one. And I didn't see interpreters developing that idea.

Does a woman have any case in complaining before a Beis Din about being raped by her husband, and how can the Bais Din punish or take measures against the husband?

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  • "Ra"n adds in place [sic] that such relations are a sort of transgression, but not a clear one" I am not seeing that in the Ran. Consider adding a link.
    – mevaqesh
    Commented Oct 26, 2017 at 13:18
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    Rape violates just about every interpersonal mitsvah, treating others as one would want to be treated, etc. It seems unlikely that raping would be more lenient than hurting someone verbally, which is itself biblically forbidden.
    – mevaqesh
    Commented Oct 26, 2017 at 13:21
  • @Mevakesh: 1. sefaria.org/Ran_on_Nedarim.20b.8?lang=he
    – Al Berko
    Commented Oct 26, 2017 at 18:13
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    @Loewian hebrewbooks.org/pdfpager.aspx?req=1096&pgnum=241 last paragraph on the right, it is not robbery or assault. but if it was assault he needs to pay see sefaria.org/Shulchan_Arukh,_Even_HaEzer.83.2 and sefaria.org/Shulchan_Arukh,_Even_HaEzer.83.1 end
    – hazoriz
    Commented Jan 10, 2018 at 19:09
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    @DoubleAA (continued) See also Pesachim 49b מה ארי דורס ואוכל ואין לו בושת פנים אף עם הארץ מכה ובועל ואין לו בושת פנים, and Tosfos (ad loc. s.v. Mah) עם הארץ אינו ממתין עד שתתפייס, that this type of conduct is described as typical as that of an Am Haaretz, but still, no Beis Din involvement. Also see Eiruvin (100b) ואמר רמי בר חמא אמר רב אסי, אסור לאדם שיכוף אשתו לדבר מצוה וכו'. וא"ר יהושע בן לוי, כל הכופה אשתו לדבר מצוה, הווין לו בנים שאינן מהוגנין. Again, prohibited, but no punishment by Beis Din.
    – IsraelReader
    Commented May 29, 2019 at 23:29

1 Answer 1

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NOTE: the virtually same answer was posted for a more general question "What damages does a hurting husband pay to his wife?"

Rambam Hilchos Chovel U'Mazik 4:17

וְהַמַּזִּיק אִשְׁתּוֹ בְּתַשְׁמִישׁ הַמִּטָּה חַיָּב בִּנְזָקֶיהָ:

When a person injures his wife through marital relations, he is liable for the damages.

This isn't necessarily referring to rape. However the Rambam writes in the previous halacha
Hilchos Chovel U'Mazik 4:16 :

בַּמֶּה דְּבָרִים אֲמוּרִים שֶׁחָבְלוּ בָּהּ אֲחֵרִים. אֲבָל הַבַּעַל שֶׁחָבַל בְּאִשְׁתּוֹ חַיָּב לְשַׁלֵּם לָהּ מִיָּד כָּל הַנֵּזֶק וְכָל הַבּשֶׁת וְהַצַּעַר וְהַכּל שֶׁלָּהּ וְאֵין לַבַּעַל בָּהֶן פֵּרוֹת. וְאִם רָצְתָה לִתֵּן הַדָּמִים לְאַחֵר נוֹתֶנֶת. וְכָזֶה הוֹרוּ הַגְּאוֹנִים. וְהַבַּעַל מְרַפֵּא אוֹתָהּ כְּדֶרֶךְ שֶׁמְּרַפֵּא כָּל חָלְיָהּ:

When does the above apply? When others injured her. When, however, a husband injures his wife, he is required to pay her the entire assessment for the damages, the embarrassment and the pain. This money is hers entirely. The husband has no rights to the profits. If she desires to give the money to another person, she may. This is the ruling rendered by the geonim. The husband must pay for her medical expenses, as he pays for all her other medical expenses.

Neither of these halachot from Hilchos Chovel U'Mazik explicitly address the punishment if a husband rapes his wife, but from here we can see that the husband is punished regardless.

Both of these halachos are codified by the Shulchan Aruch, Even Haezer 83:1-2

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  • Great, you mean it is not called a RAPE anywhere, because it's his wife. It's plain damages.
    – Al Berko
    Commented May 29, 2019 at 18:25

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