Should one refrain from making a Berachah on rabbinically prohibited foods, or does that rule only apply to biblically prohibited foods?
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2Can you cite where the rule is applied to biblically prohibited foods?– Isaac Moses ♦Commented Jul 5, 2012 at 22:00
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Not until I can get to a PC. #aboveaverageintelligencebutnotquiteageniusphone– Seth JCommented Jul 5, 2012 at 22:11
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related: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/17535/759 judaism.stackexchange.com/q/14905/759– Double AA ♦Commented Jul 6, 2012 at 0:28
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Also related: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/35861– msh210 ♦Commented Mar 4, 2014 at 2:25
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1 Answer
אכל דבר איסור, אף על פי שאינו אסור אלא מדרבנן, אין מזמנין עליו ואין מברכין עליו לא בתחלה ולא בסוף. (שולחן ערוך או"ח סימן קצו:א)
If one ate something prohibited, even if it was only prohibited rabbinically, one does not combine him to a zimmun, nor would he say a beginning or after blessing [on that food]. (Shulchan Aruch OC 196:1)
answered Jul 6, 2012 at 0:41
