I heard from someone that medicine does not require a berachah.
What is the source for this?
Mi Yodeya is a question and answer site for those who base their lives on Jewish law and tradition and anyone interested in learning more. It only takes a minute to sign up.
Sign up to join this communityThe source is the implication of Berachos 36a. The Gemara is discussing making a blessing on the oil in a mixture of oil and juice in which you want the oil more because you want it to soothe your throat. The Gemara questions why it isn't obvious that the blessing would be on the oil if it is overtly what you want more.
פשיטא מהו דתימא כיון דלרפואה קא מכוין לא לבריך עליה כלל קמ"ל כיון דאית ליה הנאה מיניה בעי ברוכי
Isn't that obvious? No, one may have thought that since the one drinking intends for medicinal purposes, he should not make any blessing. This teaches us that since he enjoyed it, he does make a blessing.
Rashi:
לבד הרפואה יש לו הנאת אכילה
He got enjoyment aside from the healing
The implication is if you do consume something for medicinal purposes, and don't get any eating related pleasure, you do not make a blessing.
This is brought in Shulchan Aruch O.C. 204:8
כל האוכלין והמשקין שאדם אוכל ושותה לרפואה אם טעמם טוב והחיך נהנה מהם מברך עליהם תחלה וסוף.