In Esther 7:4, Esther says that had the Jews been sold for slaves and maidservants, she would have been silent.
Devarim 28:68 says that we would be shipped to Egypt, and we would try to sell ourselves as slaves and maidservants. but no one will buy us.
While I am aware that the verse in Devarim seems to point to selling ourselves in Egypt, I'm not sure that the curse of selling ourselves as slaves was specific to happening in Egypt. It could be anywhere if we didn't follow G-d's commands. History has proven this to be the case as we were slaves in other countries. (Most recently during the Hollocaust.)
I'm curious if what Esther was saying about being silent if we would have been sold as slaves was her way of referring to the verse in Devarim, i.e. that she saw this as a fulfillment of G-d's decree had that actually happened. Are there any commentaries that make this connection?
