The M"B brings in the beginning of Siman 47 from the Shagas Aryeh (Siman 24-25) that if one is in sofek (doubt) if they said Bircas HaTorah then they should go back and say the bracha however only the bracha of "asher bachar banu" (And not all three brachas that we say lichatchila.) This goes in accordance with the Rishonim that hold Bircas HaTorah is min haTorah.

However why to say only one? I realize the Shagas Aryeh says because if you say one you have fulfilled your obligation from the Torah and the other 2 brachos are then considered to be only d'rabbanan and then we wouldn't say those because of a doubt. However we see by Bircas HaMazon that if one is in sofek if they said it or not (and ate to the point of being satiated) then they must now say it (Shulchan Aruch Orach Chaim 184:4.) The M"B there in Note 13 says that one should even say the 4th bracha which is only d'rabbanan in order that one should not be m'zalzel (make light of?) the brachas of Bircas HaMazon.

Why according to the Shagas Aryeh and what he says about Bircas HaTorah would this not apply? Even if with one bracha you are yotzee m'doraisa (making the other 2 then d'rabbanan.) However why doesnt' this idea of not wanting to be m'zalzel not apply in this case of Bircas HaTorah.

(Note: I'm asking this only according to the Shagas Aryeh because I don't know what the Rishonim that hold Bircas HaTorah is d'oraisa would say in this case. Perhaps they would hold that one should say all 3 brachas again, maybe not? If someone has a proof to this either way please edit or comment. As well perhaps this can only be asked on the Shagas Aryeh if the whole idea of saying the 4th bracha as well is a "later" idea. THe M"B brings the makor for not being "m'zalzel" from "Achronim". However I don't know what the earlier sources say. Perhaps someone could help with this as well.)

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    "Asher bachar banu" is the b'racha that fulfills the obligation from כי שם השם אקרא, whereas the other b'racha is merely a birkas hamitzva, which is an unrelated rabbinic obligation. In Birkas HaMazon however, all the blessings are extensions of the same biblical obligation of ואכלת ושבעת וברכת (even though the fourth one is generally accepted to be rabbinic), so the obligation is not fulfilled in it's proper form unless all of the blessings are recited. Therefore they must all be recited to avoid זילזול. – Fred May 19 '13 at 19:13
  • @Fred what is your source that it is an "unrelated" rabbinic obligation and "merely" a "bircas hamitzvah". Couldn't I really say the first bracha and also be yotzee m'doraisa? – Yehoshua May 21 '13 at 14:20
  • I haven't seen a source to that effect, but I'm reasoning as follows: Even assuming it is not a problem of אין עושין מצוות חבילות חבילות, and even assuming that it fits the biblical criteria for כי שם השם אקרא (both assumptions are questionable), the first b'racha was designed to function as a birkas hamitzva and someone would be deviating from the מטבע שטבעו חז"ל if he also used it as the b'racha for כי שם השם אקרא. As such, one could not l'chatchila be yotzei d'oraisa from the first b'racha, and it is possible that חז"ל were mafkia the b'racha from functioning even b'dieved for that purpose. – Fred May 21 '13 at 18:53

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