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May 21, 2013 at 18:53 comment added Fred I haven't seen a source to that effect, but I'm reasoning as follows: Even assuming it is not a problem of אין עושין מצוות חבילות חבילות, and even assuming that it fits the biblical criteria for כי שם השם אקרא (both assumptions are questionable), the first b'racha was designed to function as a birkas hamitzva and someone would be deviating from the מטבע שטבעו חז"ל if he also used it as the b'racha for כי שם השם אקרא. As such, one could not l'chatchila be yotzei d'oraisa from the first b'racha, and it is possible that חז"ל were mafkia the b'racha from functioning even b'dieved for that purpose.
May 21, 2013 at 14:20 comment added Yehoshua @Fred what is your source that it is an "unrelated" rabbinic obligation and "merely" a "bircas hamitzvah". Couldn't I really say the first bracha and also be yotzee m'doraisa?
May 21, 2013 at 14:01 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackJudaism/status/336844171677679618
May 19, 2013 at 19:13 comment added Fred "Asher bachar banu" is the b'racha that fulfills the obligation from כי שם השם אקרא, whereas the other b'racha is merely a birkas hamitzva, which is an unrelated rabbinic obligation. In Birkas HaMazon however, all the blessings are extensions of the same biblical obligation of ואכלת ושבעת וברכת (even though the fourth one is generally accepted to be rabbinic), so the obligation is not fulfilled in it's proper form unless all of the blessings are recited. Therefore they must all be recited to avoid זילזול.
May 18, 2013 at 23:28 history asked Yehoshua CC BY-SA 3.0