Why is a chet with a patach at the end of a word pronounced "ACH" and not "CHA"? Example: מָשִׁיחַ
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As noted in an answer, this is not quite worded correctly. Also, the title should specify that you are referring to the end of the word.– Seth JCommented Sep 10, 2012 at 2:38
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@SethJ "a chet with a patach at the end of a word" ?– b aCommented Sep 10, 2012 at 2:40
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1@BA, "the title should specify..."– Seth JCommented Sep 10, 2012 at 2:59
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2Does anyone think this is in scope?– Double AA ♦Commented Sep 10, 2012 at 3:11
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Astonishing, I think, that questions pertaining to the Hebrew language and to Israelite history are considered tangential to Judaism. I've read the FAQ, I'm just saying.– Shimon bMCommented Sep 10, 2012 at 6:35
1 Answer
Actually, the question is why it is spelt differently, and not why it is pronounced differently at all. If you wanted to say meshicha, you certainly could. That would be a different word, of course, though a related one. It would be spelt משיחה.
For words that end in -ach, orthographic convention has us conclude them with the chet. This is also the case for words ending in -'a (such as רקיע) and in -ah, where the final ה is consonantal (such as אלוהּ).
The reason for all of these is that the final vowel/consonant combination is not preceded by a phonological alef, but by a rounding off of the previous vowel. Hence, mashi(y)ach, raqi(y)a and elo(w)ah.
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Not all agree with your last paragraph judaism.stackexchange.com/q/2313/759– Double AA ♦Commented Sep 10, 2012 at 3:18
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Actually, it doesn't matter if I'm wrong: the issue isn't how people pronounce alefs and elided vowels today vs. how they did in the past, but that people did (and do) differentiate between them, that such a differentiation is manifested here, and that its represented orthographically. That last line was really just by way of an example, though different communities pronounce things in different ways. Commented Sep 10, 2012 at 4:49