I am aware that there is a long standing argument about whether the Shalosh Shevuot(1) are a Halachic concept to be reckoned with or "just" an aggadata. I'm sure that there are many varied opinions in Jewish tradition. I would like to know if there is any final concensus on this question. I am not asking about its applicability to Zionism or Medinat Yisroel but just about the concept of the Shevuoth itself.
(1)Masechet Ketubot 111a: And Rabbi Zera? - That text is required for [an exposition] like that of Rabbi Jose son of Rabbi Hanina who said: 'What was the purpose of those three adjurations? - One, that Israel shall not go up [all together as if surrounded] by a wall {Rashi: together, by force}; the second, that whereby the Holy One, blessed be He, adjured Israel that they shall not rebel against the nations of the world; and the third is that whereby the Holy One, blessed be He, adjured the idolaters that they shall not oppress Israel too much'.
I would like to know if there is any final concensus [sic] on this question
In the absence of the Sanhedrin HaGadol, I am not sure what sort of "final consensus " can be reached. In this particular case, I assume you are aware that followers of Satmar, for example, definitely disagree with the view demonstrated by R. Melamed cited here. So there is definitely not consensus.I am aware that there is a long standing argument about whether the Shalosh Shevuot are a Halachic concept to be reckoned with
Could you cite any opinion that hold that it is a halakhic concept? R. Melamed's citations of the Avnei Neizer, Rif, Rosh, Rishonim, Rambam, Shulhan Arukh, and P'ney Yehoshua, to prove the opposite, seem pretty impressive.