According to this article on Jewish Encyclopedia, the conventional Jewish system of dating documents in the Middle Ages (a system called "מנין שטרות") was related to the accession of Seleucus I, the first king of the Seleucid dynasty. This Hebrew article on Wikipedia explains how it came to be that Jews associated this dating system with the arrival of Alexander and the cessation of prophecy. From that same article, it appears that this was a common system for the dating of ketubot, gittin, colophons and financial documents until the 9th century, although it persisted for Egyptian Jews until the 16th century, and for Yemenite Jews until the 20th.
[For a beautiful example of a colophon that employs this system, see this image from the Leningrad Codex, completed c.1008. It utilises a number of different dates, but the relevant one is at the end of the third line: והיא שנת אלף ושלש מאות ותשע עשרה שנה למלכות יונים שהיא למנין {שטרות} ולפסיקת הנבואה.]
My question, based on the foregoing, is as follows:
The Mishna, in Gittin 8:5, specifically forbids dating a divorce document in accordance with the Greek empire (לשום מלכות יון), and the gemara (Gittin 80a-b) does not appear to qualify this in any respect. What is more, neither Rashi nor the Tosafot raise any objections to this, despite it having been the custom to do so until only a couple of centuries earlier!
Why was dating divorce documents in accordance with the Seleucid Empire not problematic for Jews? Alternatively, how do I learn this mishna (and the corresponding gemara) in such a way that it is not suggesting that this practice should be forbidden? (Or, thirdly, is the author of the Wikipedia article mistaken, and this system was never used for שטרות גירושין?)