Just to establish some basic grammar rules quickly - if a word starts with two segols and is the end of a sentence, the first segol is often changed to a kamatz (one example of many in the Torah: Yefes turns into Yufes when the note is an esnachta or it's a sof passuk). Similarly, a patach will be changed to a kamatz if it's the end of a sentence (maaluh --> muluh).
There's a famous debate among poskim quoted in several answers to this question about whether the line of Mashiv HaRuach ends in Morid HaGeshem or Morid HaGushem, a segol under the gimmel or a kamatz. However it seems to be more or less universal among those who say Morid HaTal to say it with a kamatz under the tess (Morid HaT-uh-l instead of Morid HaT-ah-l). Rav Shlomo Zalman Aurbach is quoted in a Dirshu Mishna Brurah note in Siman 114 as saying it should be a patach but every siddur I've seen has it as a kamatz. Assuming there's basis for pronouncing Tul with a kamatz, which indicates that whatever line you're saying before Mechalkel is separate and has a stoppage before Mechalkel, why would you say Morid HaGeshem with a segol, which implies the line continues into Mechalkel? As it happens, R' SZ Aurbach is quoted in that same Dirshu note as saying it should be Geshem with a segol, so the question would not be on him, but most siddurim have the pronunciation of Geshem with a segol and Tul with a Kamatz.