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HaShem teaches Moshe the following in Shemot 3:15:

כֹּה-תֹאמַר אֶל-בְּנֵי יִשְׂרָאֵל, יְהוָה אֱלֹהֵי אֲבֹתֵיכֶם אֱלֹהֵי אַבְרָהָם אֱלֹהֵי יִצְחָק וֵאלֹהֵי יַעֲקֹב, שְׁלָחַנִי אֲלֵיכֶם; זֶה-שְּׁמִי לְעֹלָם, וְזֶה זִכְרִי לְדֹר דֹּר.

Why would HaShem command Moshe to use the name יהוה for ever and to remember it from generation to generation, if we often don’t even call him Yud-Hey-Vav-Hey to prevent ourselves from using His name blasphemously?

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    Shouldn't you ask the opposite: why do we avoid it if God told us to use it? The question isn't on God
    – Double AA ♦
    Commented Dec 18, 2018 at 13:42
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    Possible duplicate judaism.stackexchange.com/q/71413/759 cc @msh
    – Double AA ♦
    Commented Dec 18, 2018 at 13:43
  • There is an answer to what the OP is asking. It relates specifically to how G-d was telling Moshe to relate to the Children of Israel who were in Mitzrayim at the time. He was to explain to them that the same G-d (and that unique relationship to each of the Avot "זִכְרִי לְדֹר דֹּר") is the G-d who sent Moshe to them now. The posuk is referring to the particular intention that we have when we speak these same words in the opening 3 blessings of the Amidah prayer. If the question is taken off hold, it can be answered.
    – Yaacov Deane
    Commented Dec 18, 2018 at 15:02
  • @DoubleAA Your right, it isn’t on G-d, main point is; He told us, we don’t do it; but why? Other verses even teach to praise this name, yet we don’t use His name. I know a lot of reasons given by the Rishonim why we dont pronounce His Name or avoid doing so. Bit that’s not the focus of the question. The focus is why we don’t do what He seems to be asking, or when He isn’t at all asking that, in such case what does it mean.
    – Levi
    Commented Dec 18, 2018 at 21:23

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Some say because the original vowel points are lost, so if you say it incorrectly you would potentially be saying the wrong name. This would be disrespectful to the LORD. It is better to be safe than sorry...

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