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Can a get (bill of divorce) suffice as evidence of proper gerus (conversion), assuming one was born a non-Jew? If so, under what circumstances? For the man or for the woman (or both)?

  • This sounds like the basis of an excellent question if you can focus on what type of "proof" you need. E.g. is this for aliyah (immigration) purposes to Israel? I'm not familiar with the wording on a get, but I think a similar or better question would focus on the ketubah as it states if a woman was a convert. I don't recall if it states the same thing for the groom, though. Anyone confirm this? – DanF Aug 27 '15 at 21:20
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    If you mean, is the writing of a get for oneself, or ones mother, (or her mother...) proof that the recipient of the get was Jewish (for otherwise why write one), the answer is no. If someone was maybe Jewish, it would still be prudent to write her a get, just in case she was Jewish, even if you did not know for sure. Accordingly, a get would not be proof of Judaism. (If I misunderstood you, please clarify). Hope to see you around the site. – mevaqesh Aug 27 '15 at 23:48
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I am not sure if Halchically a get should be a proof of conversion, but I can tell you that in practice the Rabbanut will not even except their own divorce certificates as a proof of Jewishness, forget about its being a proof of conversion.

When I remarried in Israel I presented my divorce certificate as proof of Jewishness. The Rabbanut did not accept this document. They explained to me that in order to avoid Agunot they will always write a get with no questions and without verifying anything, so it cannot be used to prove anything.

(I have been wondering since then how they let my wife remarry based on the same certificate. I guess its one of the mysteries of Judaism.)

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    "how they let my wife remarry based on the same certificate" Makes sense to me. If there's a doubt she's Jewish, the get can't fix that: maybe she wasn't Jewish but got a get anyway. If there's no doubt she's Jewish, but there's a doubt she's married, the get does fix that: if she got a get, she's definitely free to marry (maybe she was never married in the first place and got a get anyway, but either way she's not married now). – Leopold says Reinstate Monica Nov 20 '19 at 5:31
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One never has a Get to show, only a Ptur. The language of the Ptur follows the language of the Get but might include some information in an addendum. If the Ptur was written by a well-known Posek and includes information about the Ger/Giyores then perhaps this information would be accepted by a Bet Din. If however, the Ptur does not include any additional information and the rabbis signed on it were not known to be meticulous, then perhaps other rabbis would not be as likely to accept it as a first-hand document. At all times, one is responsible for the evidence of her/his conversion, both the physical document and the "proof in the pudding" by how one dresses and acts.

  • 1. Sources please? 2. What do you mean, she never has the get? Isn’t the whole point that he actually give her the get? – DonielF Nov 19 '19 at 23:56
  • I do not know what you mean by 'ptur', but a woman should get a 'maaseh beis din', not a ptur. – simyou Nov 20 '19 at 4:43
  • @DonielF standard practice is she gives the get back to the court to be filed/destroyed. She doesn't keep it as a memento – Double AA Nov 20 '19 at 12:40

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