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Can a get (bill of divorce) suffice as evidence of proper gerus (conversion), assuming one was born a non-Jew? If so, under what circumstances? For the man or for the woman (or both)?

  • This sounds like the basis of an excellent question if you can focus on what type of "proof" you need. E.g. is this for aliyah (immigration) purposes to Israel? I'm not familiar with the wording on a get, but I think a similar or better question would focus on the ketubah as it states if a woman was a convert. I don't recall if it states the same thing for the groom, though. Anyone confirm this? – DanF Aug 27 '15 at 21:20
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    If you mean, is the writing of a get for oneself, or ones mother, (or her mother...) proof that the recipient of the get was Jewish (for otherwise why write one), the answer is no. If someone was maybe Jewish, it would still be prudent to write her a get, just in case she was Jewish, even if you did not know for sure. Accordingly, a get would not be proof of Judaism. (If I misunderstood you, please clarify). Hope to see you around the site. – mevaqesh Aug 27 '15 at 23:48

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