5

A Jewish man marries a non-Jewish woman in a Jewish ceremony, with a ketubah, under the supervision of a non-orthodox rabbi.

Later on, the couple obtains a civil divorce.

May the Jewish man now marry a Jewish woman without the need for a get, since his ex-wife was not Jewish? Or is a get required?

12

A non-Jew is in the category of Ein Kiddushin Tofsin Bam (marriage does not 'catch' them). (Mishna Kiddushin 3:12, ShA EH 44:8)

Thus there was not and cannot be a marriage between a Jew and a non-Jew, and giving a Get would serve no purpose as there is no marriage to sever.

  • It should be noted that in cases of the reverse; a Jewish woman "married" to a non-Jewish man, it is not unheard of for Gittin to be written upon "divorce" for the very practical reason that in the event that she wishes to remarry she doesnt need to go through the hassle of proving that her first husband wasnt Jewish. I believe that R. Nota Greenblatt writes such Gittin particularly in cases such as where the husband underwent a Reform or conservative conversion, where although no halachic change has been effected, a future beis din might not be clear about the details and make problems with – mevaqesh Mar 16 '15 at 3:17
  • her future marriage. – mevaqesh Mar 16 '15 at 3:17

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