7

This might seem like a "funny" question. I don't think this would be permitted and I really have no basis to think why it should be however I'm trying to work out why this wouldn't work (or perhaps maybe it would!) In any case this is my introduction in order to avoid any comments of "why do you think this would be good!?"

Yom Tov comes out on Thursday. Those in Chutz L'Aretz (those that live outside of Eretz Yisrael) keep Friday also as 2nd day yom tov. The same is those from Chutz L'Aretz that are in Eretz Yisrael (they also keep Friday as 2nd day yom tov.) Such a person needs to make an Eiruv Tavshilin in order to cook on Yom Tov for Shabbos. In a normal case if one was not made, the Rov of the city usually makes one that people can rely on in particular situations. In this case however there is no "rov" making one since it's in Eretz Yisrael. But let's say a rov did make an "eiruv tavshilin" would this help in order for the person to cook? What about if the rov made it before yom tov? What about if the rov made it on Friday and had in mind that it should work for this person? Would this help?

Improve this question

2 Answers 2

Reset to default
1

This is not a funny question at all, in fact, many Poskim discuss the question.

The Biur Halacha in Siman 527 says that the Rav of the city could make an eiruv for others even if he already made one for himself and forgot to include the rest of the city. However, that's in a case that the Rav is also making and using an eiruv.

In your case, since the Rav is not mechuyav, the Chid"a in Shu"t Chaim Shal, 1, 74;54 brings from the Kol Eliyahu Siman 31 that says that it won't work for that reason. He then goes on to argue that since it is only a shlichus not being Motzi anything, it would work.

More recently, in the sefer Shalmei Todah Siman 36:3 he brings a machlokes between R' Shteinman who says it does not work and R' Nissim Karelitz who says it does work.

Reb Moshe Stern (Debreciner Rav) in Be'er Moshe 7 pg 305 has a lengthy discussion on the topic with the different shitos and explains a possible difference between who's food it used.

Improve this answer
0
0

If the Rav is himself observing two days of Yom Tov, I don't see why he should not be able to make an eruv for someone else who is also observing. However, if he is not observing two days of Yom Tov, since he cannot make an eruv tavshilin for himself (as eruv tavshilin does not enable you to cook from Thursday to Shabbat - see Orach Chaim 427, 13) he cannot make one for others.

Improve this answer
5
  • Why must he be able to make one for himself? A married woman may accept kiddushin on someone else's behalf.
    – Double AA ♦
    Commented Aug 27, 2013 at 20:28
  • A married woman is certainly within the framework of kiddushin, she is simply already mekudeshet. But for a Ben Eretz Yisrael it is not Yom Tov on Friday so eruv tavshilin is not relevant for him at all, just like I assume he cannot make kiddush for someone observing a second day of Yom Tov.
    – Ofer Livnat
    Commented Aug 27, 2013 at 21:39
  • Why do you assume that? Everyone is in the framework of ET, even if they can't do one right now (like a married women couldn't get married again right now). Also I don't know that it's a good parallel because ET is all about beginning to prepare for Shabbat and even without Yom Tov one could do that.
    – Double AA ♦
    Commented Aug 29, 2013 at 23:56
  • @OferLivnat I was told by my rabbi to make kiddush for people who were celebrating chag when I was not.
    – avi
    Commented Dec 26, 2013 at 7:52
  • @OferLivnat I like the sevara but don’t b’nei Eretz Yisrael have to keep two days if they go to Chutz La’aretz? So technically they should be no different than Kiddushin: just as she can’t do Kiddushin now but is in its framework, so, too, the Israeli is in the framework of Eruv Tavshilin but is presently not in the framework.
    – DonielF
    Commented Sep 7, 2017 at 12:19

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .