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This has always confused me. One is not supposed to make unnecessary Berachoth, so one should "have in mind" to eat all of the foods that will be served in the meal when one begins the meal and makes his first Berachah/oth. Yet, one is supposed to make a separate Berachah on dessert, because it is clearly (really?) not included in the actual meal that one has in mind.

Perhaps I am mistaken as to the underlying reason, so first, is the above correct?

Second, if I do specifically have in mind to exempt dessert with my Motzi, is that effective?

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I've always included dessert in my bracha on the meal. Never even occurred to me that this might be wrong. Have I been doing it wrong all these years? – Daniel Jul 23 '12 at 18:49
Whether or not dessert nowadays is included in the regular motzi is a machloket among modern Rabbis. Feel free to ask according to one opinion. As always CYLOR for a personal ruling. – Double AA Jul 23 '12 at 18:53
Having in mind is nice but if one is eating fruit at the end of the meal then that is dessert which bread doesn't cover ,unlike a fruit soup which is an appitizer and is covered by hamotzi. Doubleaa which Rabbis are you ref? – sam Jul 23 '12 at 19:55
@sam, so you are saying "having in mind" for fruit is meaningless? Source? – Seth J Jul 23 '12 at 20:06
very related: judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/2683/… – Avrohom Yitzchok Jul 23 '12 at 21:50

Sh O Orach Chaim 177 (1) deals with this and paskens that fruit eaten without bread needs a brocho. MB [3] says that food that comes for “kinuach” (roughly translated “to clean the palate”) and not to satisfy needs a brocho.

You can see a clear statement here

Summary: If desserts, such as fruits, assorted nuts, and the like, are served at the end of the meal, one must recite the appropriate blessings on each item, be it “Borei Peri Ha’etz”, “Borei Peri Ha’adama”, or “Shehakol Nihya Bidvaro”.

This source goes on to deal with ice cream which is not so simple.

I have heard other views too. For example this source requires no blessings on desserts.

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What if the fruit is served with the meal? Let's say you're on a plane and you get the entire meal in a package deal all together? Or if you pack yourself a lunch to take to work that includes a sandwich and fruit? – Seth J Jul 23 '12 at 20:58
MB quoted says "even if the fruit was in front of him when he made "hamotzi"! – Avrohom Yitzchok Jul 23 '12 at 21:03
That's what I thought. I don't understand it at ail. – Seth J Jul 23 '12 at 21:40
@AvrohomYitzchok You said it only applies to food eaten to "clean the palate" - don't extrapolate from that! In modern times it's rare to eat food that way (the only time I've heard of it is with wine tasting where they will eat some crackers, especially Matzah, in between wines, not as food, but to remove residual taste). If you are eating the fruit (or any desert) as food (as most people do), it's a completely different category. – Ariel Jul 24 '12 at 1:59
This seems to be an answer to a different question. – Double AA Jul 24 '12 at 2:03

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