If a gentile does a kosher immersion (does tevilah with the preparation, three kosher immersions, and the immersion prayer), which is required for conversion, but did so without the help of a rabbi, does that make them partially converted?

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    Welcome to Mi Yodeya; interesting question! You might want to take a look at this related question. Hope you enjoy MY! :) – MTL Dec 30 '14 at 3:15
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    I hope you don't mind that I edited your question; I removed the part of it that was asked already, and put the information you had in your question title into the body of the question, so it's more accessible. Keep in mind that you can always edit your own questions, in case I did something that wasn't to your liking. – MTL Dec 30 '14 at 3:17
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    What does "partially converted" even mean? – Double AA Dec 30 '14 at 3:29
  • @DoubleAA maybe like the status of the givonim – Y     e     z Dec 30 '14 at 3:32
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    Thanks for the edit! I don't know what it means.. I am learning about Judaism (I'm not Jewish), but I was wondering what would happen, spiritually, in this situation. – Lala Dec 30 '14 at 3:34

Maimonides states in the Laws of Forbidden Sexual Relations 13:4, that a non-Jew immerses in a mikveh by himself, it has no effect. The Shulchan Aruch in Y"D 268:3 holds this way as well, provided one did not previously accept the commandments on oneself in front of three Jews.

(See Be'er Heitiv that '2' in the S"A may refer to the requirement to at least have witnesses present)

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