Certain halachot are based in ascertaining contemporary societal practices -- I learned (though I don't have a source) that the issue of "do her nails" regarding a female captive (Dev. 21:12) is related to doing whatever the opposite of the current societal notion of beauty is. I also have read that stipulations of beged ish and simlat isha also are variable, depending on what a culture has decided is appropriate. That idea is discussed in this answer and the comment on it and in this answer.
What happens when what society decides upon (and which then might have halachic implications) contravenes evidence from the chumash itself?
The linked question asks about the propriety of certain jewelry, including earrings for men. However, Shemot 32:2 makes it clear that earrings were not at all a beged isha issue.
Aaron said to them, "Remove the golden earrings that are on the ears of your wives, your sons, and your daughters and bring them [those earrings] to me." ב.וַיֹּאמֶר אֲלֵהֶם אַהֲרֹן פָּרְקוּ נִזְמֵי הַזָּהָב אֲשֶׁר בְּאָזְנֵי נְשֵׁיכֶם בְּנֵיכֶם וּבְנֹתֵיכֶם וְהָבִיאוּ אֵלָי:
How can we decide that earrings for men are even up for discussion if there is textual proof that the article of clothing was appropriate for either gender? I would think that we would apply a community standard argument to items not explicitly allowed or forbidden, when only a category is delineated. But here, the item, itself, was accepted textually and never listed as a forbidden practice.
Can halacha apply a standard which then turns that which the text allows, into "no longer allowed"? Would this be the equivalent of making chicken into "meat"?