Is extortion prohibited by the Torah?

Question

Is extortion prohibited under Torah Law? If so what is the textual source? If not is there a rabbinical prohibition? How does it change in the case of corporate bodies/actors?

Answer 1

Just so we are all on the same page.

Extortion is the practice of obtaining benefit (e.g., money or goods) through coercion. (Wikipedia.)

You asked:

Is extortion prohibited under Torah Law?

Depending on how you define coercion, the answer may be Yes.

If so what is the textual source?

In the 10 commandments. As the Rambam (Laws of Robbery 1:9) codifies:

כָּל הַחוֹמֵד עַבְדּוֹ אוֹ אֲמָתוֹ אוֹ בֵּיתוֹ וְכֵלָיו שֶׁל חֲבֵרוֹ אוֹ דָּבָר שֶׁאֶפְשָׁר לוֹ שֶׁיִּקְנֵהוּ מִמֶּנּוּ וְהִכְבִּיר עָלָיו בְּרֵעִים וְהִפְצִיר בּוֹ עַד שֶׁלְּקָחוֹ מִמֶּנּוּ אַף עַל פִּי שֶׁנָּתַן לוֹ דָּמִים רַבִּים הֲרֵי זֶה עוֹבֵר בְּלֹא תַּעֲשֶׂה שֶׁנֶּאֱמַר (שמות כ יד) (דברים ה יח) "לֹא תַחְמֹד". וְאֵין לוֹקִין עַל לָאו זֶה מִפְּנֵי שֶׁאֵין בּוֹ מַעֲשֶׂה. וְאֵינוֹ עוֹבֵר בְּלָאו זֶה עַד שֶׁיִּקַּח הַחֵפֶץ שֶׁחָמַד. כָּעִנְיָן שֶׁנֶּאֱמַר (דברים ז כה) "לֹא תַחְמֹד כֶּסֶף וְזָהָב עֲלֵיהֶם וְלָקַחְתָּ לָךְ". חִמּוּד שֶׁיֵּשׁ בּוֹ מַעֲשֶׂה: ‏

Translated in Sefaria as:

Anyone who covets a servant, a maidservant, a house or utensils that belong to a colleague, or any other article that he can purchase from him and pressures him with friends and requests until he agrees to sell it to him, violates a negative commandment,even though he pays much money for it, as Exodus 20:14 states: "Do not covet."
The violation of this commandment is not punished by lashes, because it does not involve a deed. One does not violate this commandment until one actually takes the article he covets, as reflected by Deuteronomy 7:25: "Do not covet the gold and silver on these statues and take it for yourself." Implied is that the Hebrew tachmod refers to coveting accompanied by a deed.

Hat tip to Shalom for this.

If not is there a rabbinical prohibition?

Yes. Extortion in the classic sense is forbidden and is called חָמָס in the Talmud. The perp is called a חַמְסַן - chamsan.

The Talmud defines this in Bava Kama 62a:

אֲמַר לֵיהּ רַב אַדָּא בְּרֵיהּ דְּרַב אַוְיָא לְרַב אָשֵׁי: מָה בֵּין גַּזְלָן לְחַמְסָן? אֲמַר לֵיהּ: חַמְסָן – יָהֵיב דְּמֵי, גַּזְלָן – לָא יָהֵיב דְּמֵי. ‏

Translated in Sefaria as:

Rav Adda, son of Rav Avya, said to Rav Ashi: Concerning two terms used to describe those who take another’s property against his will, a gazlan (a thief) and a ḥamsan, what is the difference between them? Rav Ashi said to him: A ḥamsan gives money for the article that he takes from its owner, albeit against the owner’s will, whereas a gazlan (a thief) does not give money.

The Shulchan Aruch codifies it as a Rabbinic prohibition. (Choshen Mishpat 34:13):

י"ג. העובר על גזל של דבריהם פסול מדבריהם כיצד (כגון שגזל מציאת חרש שוטה וקטן או) (טור) החמסנים והם הלוקחים קרקע או מטלטלים שלא ברצון הבעלים אע"פ שנותנים הדמים וכן הרועים אחד רועי בהמה דקה ואחד רועי בהמה גסה של עצמם הרי הם פסולים שחזקתן פושטים ידיהם בגזל ומניחים בהמתן לרעות בשדות ובפרדסים של אחרים: ‏

13. One who violates rabbinical theft is rabbinically disqualified from testifying. How so? If he stole a found-item from one was who deaf, a fool or a minor or if he is a chamsan- one who takes land or movable items without the owner’s permission and pays for it.

Up for discussion: Where is the line between the Rabbinic prohibition and the Torah prohibition? IOW why is this codified as Rabbinic when it seems to be in the 10 commandments?

How does it change in the case of corporate bodies/actors?

I did not find anything explicit either way in the case of corporate bodies/actors.