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PixelArtDragon
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In the Siddur of Rav Saadia Gaon on page 136, where he discusses the Pesach Seder, he says that when we do Orchatz we are supposed to make a bracha, and after Karpas to say Borei Nephashot. However, Ashkenazim and Sefaradim do either. If to do this was the norm then, why do weAshkenazim and Sefaradim deviate, and if what wethey are doing is correct, why does hethe Rasag deviate? And if there is an inconclusive machloket, what are rationales of each side?

In the Siddur of Rav Saadia Gaon on page 136, where he discusses the Pesach Seder, he says that when we do Orchatz we are supposed to make a bracha, and after Karpas to say Borei Nephashot. If this was the norm then, why do we deviate, and if what we are doing is correct, why does he deviate?

In the Siddur of Rav Saadia Gaon on page 136, where he discusses the Pesach Seder, he says that when we do Orchatz we are supposed to make a bracha, and after Karpas to say Borei Nephashot. However, Ashkenazim and Sefaradim do either. If to do this was the norm then, why do Ashkenazim and Sefaradim deviate, and if what they are doing is correct, why does the Rasag deviate? And if there is an inconclusive machloket, what are rationales of each side?

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PixelArtDragon
PixelArtDragon
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Why does Rav Saadia Gaon say to make a bracha by Orchatz and Borei Nephashot after Karpas?

In the Siddur of Rav Saadia Gaon on page 136, where he discusses the Pesach Seder, he says that when we do Orchatz we are supposed to make a bracha, and after Karpas to say Borei Nephashot. If this was the norm then, why do we deviate, and if what we are doing is correct, why does he deviate?