9

It appears there is no difference between suicide and other forms of death as pertains to yibum and chalitza. Rabbi Moshe Rozin, a 20th century posek (Lithuania and New York) was asked to rule on the case of a widow whose husband had committed suicide and the whereabouts of the brother-in-law were unknown. (See footnote 71 herein 1). He found room for ...


5

Levirate marriage today would seem to be very rare today. Reason being it's virtually never done in the Ashkenazi world and while more acceptable in the Sefardi, it seems to rarely ever takes place. From the "History" section in the Wikipedia entry on Yibbum: By Talmudic times the practice of levirate marriage was deemed secondary in preference to ...


4

Yes Yibbum is permissible when the surviving brother is married. The oldest brother is the one who the Torah prefers to do Yibum. (Yevomos 24A) His marital status doesn't seem to have been a consideration. Particularly since according to Torah law there is no issue with having more than one wife. The Mishnah and Gemara discusses plenty of (mostly ...


3

On wikipedia, it says, Orthodox Jews in modern times have generally upheld the position of Rabbeinu Tam and perform halizah rather than yibbum. Yemenite Jews, though orthodox, practised yibbum until the en masse Aliyah of Jews to Eretz Israel in the last century. The relevant siman in the Tur is Even Ho'ezer 165, in which it shows that R' Yizchok ...


3

I'd think it would say she acquires herself through get or the husband's death. There would be no point of writing the Mishnah this way, because it would be redundant. We already have been told that a woman becomes unmarried via a get or the death of her husband. The Mishnah is trying to tell us how status changes are effected; the status change that has ...


2

The Ramban* explains that Yehuda had in mind to eventually marry off Shela to Tamar when Shela was older and would listen to his fathers rebuke, as Yehuda had let Er and Onan marry too young when they were not inclined to listen to his advice. So if Shela/Yehuda would have done chalitza, Tamar would no longer have been able to marry into Yehuda's family ...


2

The Gemara addresses this in 19b, and Rashi there explains the mishna; he says the issue here is that yibbum and chalitzah both clash with the obligation of a king's honor. Chalitza -- to have him summoned before the court and for someone to spit in front of him; yibbum (this is cool!) -- for him to say "I'm filling in for my dead brother" ... the ...


1

"Marriages" between Jews and non-Jews are not considered halachically valid and so there are no issues pertaining to yibum or chalitzah arising in such a situation. A source randomly citing this prohobition: https://ohr.edu/ask_db/ask_main.php/191/Q1/


1

They make an unusual case because they want to separate the damages aspect of intercourse from other penalties not derived from halachic torts.


1

In the lecture of Mishna we still don't know the type of Saris, but we see an equivalence: לא חולץ <=> ולא חולצין לאשתו So, if someone became Saris and die without children, לא חולצין לאשתו. The reason for the לא חולצין לאשתו is the Derasha לא ימחה, פרט למי ששמו מחוי Gemara 24a. If the brother of the died husband is Saris, he have not to make ...


1

(Edit: Now that I reread your question it seems your question is why by the first case (and all the other ones except the Yevama one) the word "s/he" in the words "And s/he acquires herself" is referring to the person after s/he was aquired, but in the case of the Yevama the word "she" in the same words is referring to the Yevama before she was acquired. ...


1

In this answer a man with amputated legs above the knee cannot do Chalitza and would normally have to do Yibbum whether sefaradi or ashkenazi. Seridei Eish III 49 quoting Or zarua 665. So if this amputee is also forbidden by a Negative commandment to marry this woman in these cases: a Petzua Daka - he has crushed genitals and cannot marry a Yisraelis (...


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