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11 votes
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When does chalitza become effective?

Once the woman has removed most of the heel of the shoe from the man’s foot, the chalitzah is effective and she is free to marry whomever she wants. (Rambam Hilchot Yibum veChalitzah 4:6) If the ...
Joel K's user avatar
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10 votes

Yibum & Chalitzah for a widow whose husband died by suicide

It appears there is no difference between suicide and other forms of death as pertains to yibum and chalitza. Rabbi Moshe Rozin, a 20th century posek (Lithuania and New York) was asked to rule on the ...
יהושע ק's user avatar
6 votes
Accepted

May coercion be used to facilitate halitzah?

Coercing a levir to perform halitzah [when one side has reason to reject entering into levirate marriage] is discussed in Yeb. 39b (see Tos. s.v. amar & Tos. Ket. 64a s.v. ve'dinei). In modern ...
Oliver's user avatar
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5 votes

How common are Levirate marriages today?

Levirate marriage today would seem to be very rare today. Reason being it's virtually never done in the Ashkenazi world and while more acceptable in the Sefardi, it seems to rarely ever takes place. ...
alicht's user avatar
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5 votes

Does a Mitzvas Asei doche a lav by Yibum in the case of Mamzeirus?

In short, Biblically the initial act of cohabitation which constitutes yibbum would be permitted, but subsequent acts would be forbidden. The rabbis forbade even the initial act; and instead ...
mevaqesh's user avatar
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4 votes
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Negiah before Nisuin

Even if there's no prohibition touching a penuya tehorah1 (single girl), these two cases have some sources which could indicate an issur. Arusa That very passage in masseches kalla states without ...
robev's user avatar
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4 votes
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Yibum against her will

Gemara Yevamos 52a says that it is forbidden Derabanan for one who does Yibbum (i.e relations) without Doing Maamar to the Yevama (which means giving her monetary value worth a shave Pruta like ...
user15464's user avatar
  • 11.5k
4 votes

If the older brother was married, is Yibbum still permissible?

Yes Yibbum is permissible when the surviving brother is married. The oldest brother is the one who the Torah prefers to do Yibum. (Yevomos 24A) His marital status doesn't seem to have been a ...
Schmerel's user avatar
  • 5,647
4 votes
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Yibbum with an incompetent woman

Chalitza requires mental competence to be effective whilst Yibbum does not. Accordingly, a mentally incompetent woman could establish a legal marriage to the brother without consent. Whether that's ...
Double AA's user avatar
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3 votes

"A y'vama acquires herself through chalitza", really?

I'd think it would say she acquires herself through get or the husband's death. There would be no point of writing the Mishnah this way, because it would be redundant. We already have been told that ...
Alex's user avatar
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3 votes
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How could Ruth do yibbum if she converted only after her husband died?

Since all of Naomi's children had died, Ruth was free of the requirement of yibum and did not perform yibum with Boaz. Indeed, one of the reasons Naomi gave trying to convince Ruth and Orpah to leave ...
sabbahillel's user avatar
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3 votes

How common are Levirate marriages today?

On wikipedia, it says, Orthodox Jews in modern times have generally upheld the position of Rabbeinu Tam and perform halizah rather than yibbum. Yemenite Jews, though orthodox, practised yibbum ...
Joshua Pearl's user avatar
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3 votes

If only a married woman can be a sotah, why does a non-spouse have authority to warn her?

It is clear from the Gemora 24b that a Yevama before Yibbum (consummation), the Yevama is not at all in her dead husband's brother's authority except: - She is forbidden to engage in relatonships with ...
user15464's user avatar
  • 11.5k
3 votes

Murderous Yibum

In the time when Bet Din executed people, there was no waiting around. As soon as the witnesses were interrogated and the sinner found guilty, he was executed immediately. So much so that Beth Din ...
Danny Schoemann's user avatar
3 votes

Murderous Yibum

Even if there was no warning or eidim, since a woman wouldn't want to marry a murderer, so she would not be forced into doing such a yibbum and the beis din would protect her from a murderer, so he ...
user15464's user avatar
  • 11.5k
3 votes

Can a 9 year old do Yibbum?

See Kiddushin 19a, where the Gemara derives from a pasuk that there is no death penalty for relations with a woman married to a nine-year old through yibum. Also see Yevamos 96b, where the Mishna ...
AKA's user avatar
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3 votes

Was Onan turning Yibum into Arayot?

The basic answer to your question appears to be no. The meforshim do not connect the actions of Onan to aishes ach. One reason is that they explain the pesaukim as showing that both Er and Onan did ...
sabbahillel's user avatar
  • 43.2k
3 votes

Where does the custom of the "tossing of the sandal" in Ruth come from? Why/How does it come to symbolize a successful business transaction?

The verse of Megilat Ruth you quoted is largely explained in Gemara Baba Metsia 47a&b. The discussion is about the mode of transaction called Chalipin, i.e. excange, used in business, for barter ...
kouty's user avatar
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3 votes
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Why didn’t Yehuda (or Shelah) perform Chaliza for Tamar?

The Ramban* explains that Yehuda had in mind to eventually marry off Shela to Tamar when Shela was older and would listen to his fathers rebuke, as Yehuda had let Er and Onan marry too young when they ...
user15464's user avatar
  • 11.5k
3 votes
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Yevamot with karet?

The Tur (Even Ha’ezer 157) brings down an argument regarding a sinner in general, and Shulchan Aruch (Even Ha’ezer 157:5) rules that Yibbum is still required, and does not make a distinction between ...
שלום's user avatar
  • 3,312
2 votes
Accepted

Can a levirate marriage yield a legitimate heir to the throne?

Kinghood is considered an asset, as is any role of authority, thus the rules of inheritance apply. A brother who takes his dead brothers childless wife inherits all his assets. So in this case the ...
Ir Relevant's user avatar
2 votes

What did Sephardic Jews do when yibum required taking a second wife?

A similar question was first addressed by the rishonim quoted in the beis yosef in even haezer 165 - ובספר המצות כתב שאם יש לו אשה אחרת שכופין אותו עד שיחלוץ בסמ"ק אם יש לו אחרת מנדין אותו בהדיא ...
user15464's user avatar
  • 11.5k
2 votes

Why is the case of the near-simultaneous deaths in Y'vamos chapter 7?

In each of the three cases we have a Hazka Kamayita. For the first two cases, (safek 9 year old and safek puberty) Meyikar Haddin, She can eat teruma (The safek 9 year old is still not 9 old, and his ...
kouty's user avatar
  • 22.8k
2 votes
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When can the brother of a man who died childless do neither yibbum nor chalitzah?

The Gemara addresses this in 19b, and Rashi there explains the mishna; he says the issue here is that yibbum and chalitzah both clash with the obligation of a king's honor. Chalitza -- to have him ...
Shalom's user avatar
  • 134k
2 votes

Why use impossible cases to illustrate laws?

They make an unusual case because they want to separate the damages aspect of intercourse from other penalties not derived from halachic torts.
Clint Eastwood's user avatar
2 votes

Why use impossible cases to illustrate laws?

In general I assume that when we see strange cases like this that they actually happened once, or at least that such a story was going around. I think the picture of someone walking along a roof and ...
simyou's user avatar
  • 1,837
2 votes

Should Ruth have insisted on Yibum and then chalitzah with the kinsman redeemer before marrying Boaz in Ruth 4?

First of all, yibum itself is only with a living brother who is not married to a woman who would forbid such a marriage (such as a sister). Since both sons of Naomi had died, then neither Rus nor ...
sabbahillel's user avatar
  • 43.2k
2 votes
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Yibbum and Jewish brothers who share a Gentile father

The Mishnah in Yevamos 97B states הַגִּיּוֹרֶת שֶׁנִּתְגַּיְּירוּ בָּנֶיהָ עִמָּהּ לֹא — חוֹלְצִין וְלֹא מְיַיבְּמִין Rashi explains that the reason is due to the fact that the non Jewish father ...
Chatzkel's user avatar
  • 13.1k
2 votes

Why didn't Machlon or Kilyon perform Yibum?

The simple answer is because they died on the same day so there was no chance for yibbum to happen. Refer to the Igeres Shmuel on Megillas Rus commenting on the verse 1:15 וַיָּמ֥וּתוּ גַם־שְׁנֵיהֶ֖ם ...
Dov's user avatar
  • 33.6k
1 vote

"A y'vama acquires herself through chalitza", really?

(Edit: Now that I reread your question it seems your question is why by the first case (and all the other ones except the Yevama one) the word "s/he" in the words "And s/he acquires herself" is ...
hazoriz's user avatar
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