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1

Rambam gives a pretty colorful, emphatic "no" (though citing minority voices who differed). Laws of Divorce, Ch. 10: הורו מקצת הגאונים שכל אישה שתיבעל בפני עדים, צריכה גט--חזקה, שאין אדם עושה בעילתו בעילת זנות. והגדילו והוסיפו בדבר זה שעלה על דעתם, עד שהורו שמי שיש לו בן משפחתו, חוששין לו, ולא תתייבם אשתו--שמא שיחרר שפחתו, ואחר כך בא עליה; ויש מהן ...


2

He is translating the reason given (by Rashi in Nida 34a) and other locations. In the original: משום שלא יהא תינוק ישראל רגיל אצלו במשכב זכור:‏ Lit: “So that a Jewish child will not grow accustomed to being with him and engage in sodomy.” I think the original means - based on the order of the words: “So that a Jewish child will not grow accustomed ...


1

NOTE: the virtually same answer was posted for a more general question "What damages does a hurting husband pay to his wife?" Rambam Hilchos Chovel U'Mazik 4:17 וְהַמַּזִּיק אִשְׁתּוֹ בְּתַשְׁמִישׁ הַמִּטָּה חַיָּב בִּנְזָקֶיהָ: When a person injures his wife through marital relations, he is liable for the damages. This isn't necessarily referring ...


-2

I need to apply some formal logic to what the Torah says "If a man seduces a virgin ... and lies with her, he must make her his wife by payment of a bride-price", in order to interpret Rambam's Hilchot Naarah Betulah: The logic says: "If a then b, so if not b than surely not a", therefore if Lehalachah the fine is not applied, it's not the case of Mefateh. (...


3

The Talmud Yerushalmi Sotah Halacha 4,4 defines that consensual Relations means if she wanted it at the begining even if she was passive and the man siezed her (even if by the end she changed her mind and didn't want it). ויש לך תפוסה בישראל והיא אסורה ואי זו זו זו שתחילתה ברצון וסופה באונס ויש לך שאינה תפוסה בישראל והיא מותרת ואי זו זו זו שתחילת' באונס ...


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