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I think once we ask this question about the Catastrophe the answer becomes apparent - we can't even justify it aposteriori, saying "Oh, seemingly everyone saved was a Tzadik and everyone perished was definitely a Rashah." It appears that the labels the sages put here are completely arbitrary, the Torah mentions no evil by that verse (Ex 12): וְהָיָה כִּי־...


It's hard to argue that is how the רשע has been brought up, since he turns to (assumedly) his father and asks "what is this service that you do", addressing those who seem to be performing rituals.


THe base of your question is causality. You're saying "does G-d smite ... because ..." implying that G-d is just and the consequences of "wickedness" are followed by a visible punishment right away. While this is theoretically true, empirically there's no connection. We either don't understand the relative wickedness or the punishment is invisible to us or ...

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