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Questions about theoretical issues about psak and general halacha concepts

2
votes
The question is based on a false premise. You seem to understand that 'the Whole Torah' requires a specific knowledge and detailed understanding of every potential application. This is incorrect. " …
answered Jun 28 '19 by chortkov2
1
vote
The חות יאיר (סי׳ ע״ט) writes that גר שנתגייר כקטן שנולד דמי applies only to laws where a Jew and non-Jew are different. In any law where they are the same, he retains the dinim from his gentile days. …
answered May 17 '19 by chortkov2
6
votes
Mishne Berurah 197:28 מי שהיה שבע קודם שאכל ואכל אכילה גסה שלא היה צריך לאותה אכילה אעפ"כ אם נהנה גרונו מאותה אכילה מברך עליו לפניו ולאחריו ומוציא אחרים ואם נפשו קצה עליו ואינו נהנה גרונו אינו …
answered May 4 '20 by chortkov2
5
votes
1answer
There is a rule 'תדיר ושאינו תדיר, תדיר קודם'. Loosely translated: When faced with two mitzvos, one must first perform the one which occurs more frequently. Q: When it comes to bracha achrona, we fin …
asked May 15 '19 by chortkov2
1
vote
The answer lies within the understanding of the Rashba's qualification that we don't make a bracha on any mitzvah which requires the involvement of another person. The Chasam Sofer (Shu"T OC"H §54) p …
answered Nov 25 '18 by chortkov2
1
vote
The Shulchan Aruch (based on gemara Kiddushin 32a) writes that אב שמחל על כבודו, כבודו מחול. The Sefer Chassidim (573) writes that although the Mechila works, one is still obligated 'miDinei Shamayim …
answered Nov 25 '18 by chortkov2
7
votes
The Gemara (Baba Metziah 90a) discusses this: איבעיא להו: מהו שיאמר אדם לנכרי חסום פרתי ודוש בה, מי אמרינן: כי אמרינן אמירה לנכרי שבות - הני מילי לענין שבת, דאיסור סקילה, אבל חסימה דאיסור לאו - לא. א …
answered Jul 18 '19 by chortkov2
3
votes
The Shulchan Aruch (338:6) rules that it is forbidden. דאמירה לעכו"ם אסור בכל איסורין כמו בשבת However, it is important to note that the exact parameters will be different to that of Shabbos. R …
answered Jul 18 '19 by chortkov2
4
votes
1answer
I'm looking for a source of a supposed conversation between the Node Beyehuda and the Baal Shem Tov regarding the reliablitiy of a mystical 'halachic sixth sense' in halacha. It involved the Baal Shem …
asked Dec 17 '20 by chortkov2
3
votes
Short Answer: It is a machlokes. The Pri Megadim (משבצות זהב סי' קס"ז סק"י) definitively states that there is no issur to eat without a bracha, merely an obligation to bless before eating. Accordingl …
answered May 10 '19 by chortkov2
13
votes
R' Elchonon Wasserman in Kovetz Shiurim (Kesuvos 74a) brings this question from R' Akiva Eiger, and explains how the Kiddushin of Biah is fundamentally different from Kessef and Shtar, and why that ha …
answered Nov 19 '18 by chortkov2
2
votes
Yes. Aveilus obligates the mourner, not the deceased. The nature of the deceased is irrelevant; the mourner would follow his mesorah on any differences between Sephardic or Ashkenazic customs.
answered May 18 '19 by chortkov2
3
votes
This scenario - where the two witnesses are trying to cause the death of the defendant, but they will not be the ones to actually commit the murder - directly correlates with the discussion posed by R …
answered Nov 8 '18 by chortkov2
3
votes
This question assumes that bittul Chametz is a form of hefker. This is indeed the position of some Rishonim (see Tosfos Pesachim 4). This very question is one of seven questions posed by the Ramban (P …
answered Apr 2 '21 by chortkov2
3
votes
There are numerous factors that need consideration for a full answer, and every scenario needs a case-by-case analysis. See here and here for a partial treatment. To answer the specific question of d …
answered Apr 3 '20 by chortkov2

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