Skip to main content

All Questions

Filter by
Sorted by
Tagged with
8 votes
2 answers
258 views

Why are several Biblical characters called "man of the Lord" (Ish HaElokim), but no one in the Bible is ever "man of God" (Ish Hashem)?

Ramban makes this observation (Deut. 33:1), and says "anyone with a good intellect" can figure out the reason. Okay I'm stumped ... help me out here please?
Shalom's user avatar
  • 136k
14 votes
4 answers
376 views

In the Bible, why did robbers bother tunneling into houses to rob them?

Exodus 22:1 speaks about the robber who was found "tunnelling in" to someone's house (vis-a-vis self-defense). Is that just a figure of speech, or did they actually go to that much trouble? (What ...
Shalom's user avatar
  • 136k