All Questions
Tagged with hebrew parshanut-torah-comment
38 questions
3
votes
0
answers
50
views
Why do the Sages often believe that the word רוב mean "majority," when it clearly means "a lot"?
It seems clear that the word רוב in biblical Hebrew means "a large amount." For example, Bereshit 48:16
וְיִדְגּוּ לָרֹב בְּקֶרֶב הָאָרֶץ may they teem into multitudes in the midst of the ...
1
vote
2
answers
98
views
What does the name of Amalek mean?
I know there are various etymological methods that scientists use to say "we don't really know where this word comes from" but I'm wondering about what Jewish methods we can apply to ...
13
votes
2
answers
616
views
Is there a reason or pattern as to when the Torah uses אֵת instead of אֶת?
I noticed a mix of the two forms of the Hebrew objective marker commonly pronounced אֶת. in the Torah. (There is no English translation of this word. It is used only to notify that an object follows ...
4
votes
2
answers
270
views
Translating Genesis 1:1 "בְּרֵאשִׁ֖ית" to "in the beginning"
Apologies if this is a stupid question (or belongs in a different group). Since I'm not Jewish & only beginning to learn Hebrew I lack the background to pose an intelligent question.
English uses ...
10
votes
7
answers
967
views
Is there a substantive difference in meaning when the Torah uses the Hebrew verb root דבר rather than אמר?
Is there a substantive difference in meaning when the Torah uses the Hebrew verb root דבר rather than אמר, or do they both pretty much mean "to say" or "to speak"? Do any sages see the choice of one ...
2
votes
1
answer
127
views
Number of dead after the Golden calf
When we get a count in the Torah it is in an exact form (either literal or metaphorical) for example the tribe of Reuven had 46,500 members. An exception to this rule would seem after the golden calf, ...
3
votes
2
answers
322
views
מַלְאַךְ ה׳—“the angel of GOD” or “an angel”
In various places the Torah refers to מַלְאַךְ ה׳; e.g., twice in Bereishis 22. Mechon Mamre’s JPS translation renders this as “the angel of the LORD”, but is the definite article implicit in this ...
1
vote
1
answer
437
views
Why the Hebrew word for "fathers" - אבות ends in "ות" as feminine?
To continue the "gender in Hebrew" questions (like "meaning-of-grammatical-gender-in-hebrew-for-inanimate-objects)".
What can be more masculine than the fathers, and still, the ...
0
votes
1
answer
265
views
Do the words "Omer" (as in counting the Omer) and "Amar" (to speak or to say) have a connection to each other?
Do the words "Omer" (as in counting the Omer, starts with Ayin) and "Amar" (to speak or to say, starts with Alef) have a connection to each other?
If so, what were the ...
2
votes
1
answer
134
views
Do the words menorah and Torah have the same root in Hebrew?
I'm studying the parashat Behaaloscha, the part where Aharon kindle de Menorah. I read that the meaning of Menorah has to do with 'Tora Study. I'm from Brazil where we speak Portuguese and the words ...
6
votes
1
answer
230
views
The difference between ארון and תיבה in the Torah
I'm a little confused here: in contemporary Hebrew the difference is simple - a box that opens on the side [and has a door] is called a cabinet (ארון) while a box that opens on the top is called a box ...
-2
votes
4
answers
260
views
Return *his* dress?
After the command to return a lost ox, we find: "You should do likewise for his dress (לשמלתו)."
However, two pesukim later, we see וְלֹא-יִלְבַּשׁ גֶּבֶר שִׂמְלַת אִשָּׁה (and a man shouldn't wear ...
1
vote
2
answers
487
views
What is the meaning of Mishneh Torah, Hilchot Melachim 12:5 when it uses the Hebrew phrase "כִּי מָלְאָה הָאָרֶץ דֵּעָה אֶת ה'"?
In Mishneh Torah, Hilchot Melachim 12:5, Rambam quotes Isaiah 11:9 using the phrase:
כִּי מָלְאָה הָאָרֶץ דֵּעָה אֶת ה' כַּמַּיִם לַיָּם מְכַסִּים
This is commonly translated as, That the earth ...
14
votes
4
answers
375
views
In the Bible, why did robbers bother tunneling into houses to rob them?
Exodus 22:1 speaks about the robber who was found "tunnelling in" to someone's house (vis-a-vis self-defense). Is that just a figure of speech, or did they actually go to that much trouble? (What ...
8
votes
6
answers
1k
views
Why is the Aleph diminished in size in Vayikra 1:1?
Vayikra 1:1 "And He called to Moshe and spoke..."
In some Torah scrolls the Aleph in the first word is diminished in size. What is the significance of this anomaly? (The very next word — to Moshe — ...
5
votes
2
answers
162
views
what does the first word of shemot 8:7 mean?
Sh'mot 8:7:
וְסָרוּ הַצְפַרְדְּעִים, מִמְּךָ וּמִבָּתֶּיךָ, וּמֵעֲבָדֶיךָ, וּמֵעַמֶּךָ: רַק בַּיְאֹר, תִּשָּׁאַרְנָה.
Artscroll says it means "depart", implying the frogs will hop away. A few p'...
1
vote
3
answers
477
views
What is the difference between "nitzavim" and "omdim"?
The beginning of this week's parsha starts with the words אתם נצבים. Couldn't it have used the phrase אתם עומדים ? I understand that in this context, both words mean "stand". Why use the term נצבים. ...
2
votes
0
answers
210
views
A list of doubled words
In the tanach, there are times when certain words are doubled (generally verbs but I'm open to other combinations) with one form of the word, followed by a second form which is in a future tense, I ...
2
votes
1
answer
137
views
הם (heym) vs. המה (heyma)
Why does the Torah use the word המה - HEYMA - in these 19 psukim (20 times) instead of the more common and simple form הם - HEYM ?
בראשית ו ד
בראשית ז יד
בראשית מב לה
בראשית מד ג
שמות יט יג
שמות ...
6
votes
1
answer
799
views
Is "tirtzach" 'murder'?
The way I was taught it (and confirmed by this answer and the comment on it), the Hebrew word "tirtzach" refers to murder, and is distinguished from the H-R-G and M-T roots which mean "kill." ...
2
votes
2
answers
403
views
Why is the HEY enlarged in Deut. 32:6?
"To" Ha Shem.... In some Torah scrolls the HEY is enlarged for the word "To" which proceeds Ha Shem, What is the significance? I have not seen this in other verses of Torah where the word proceeding ...
13
votes
3
answers
2k
views
Why can't Ploni Almoni be a real name, in Ruth?
The verse states (Ruth 4:1):
וּבֹעַז עָלָה הַשַּׁעַר, וַיֵּשֶׁב שָׁם, וְהִנֵּה הַגֹּאֵל עֹבֵר אֲשֶׁר דִּבֶּר-בֹּעַז, וַיֹּאמֶר סוּרָה שְׁבָה-פֹּה פְּלֹנִי אַלְמֹנִי; וַיָּסַר, וַיֵּשֵׁב
Now Boaz ...
9
votes
1
answer
330
views
Is there a difference in meaning between קָדֹֽשׁ and קֹֽדֶשׁ?
I am helping my son lain parshat Emor. He's having a hard time seeing the difference between קֹֽדֶשׁ and קָדֹ֥שׁ esp. when they are written the same. Usually, when I train students to lain, I try to ...
2
votes
1
answer
290
views
Did Moses divorce Tziporah? [duplicate]
Exodus 18:2:
וַיִּקַּ֗ח יִתְרוֹ֙ חֹתֵ֣ן מֹשֶׁ֔ה אֶת־צִפֹּרָ֖ה אֵ֣שֶׁת מֹשֶׁ֑ה
אַחַ֖ר שִׁלּוּחֶֽיהָ׃
And Jethro, Moses’father-in-law, took Zipporah, Moses’wife, after he
had sent her away
...
4
votes
1
answer
88
views
Assist with understanding Shada"l regarding grammatic usage in Shemot 18:26
Exodus 18:26 (minor modif. to Sefaria English):
וְשָׁפְט֥וּ אֶת־הָעָ֖ם בְּכָל־עֵ֑ת אֶת־הַדָּבָ֤ר הַקָּשֶׁה֙ יְבִיא֣וּן
אֶל־מֹשֶׁ֔ה וְכָל־הַדָּבָ֥ר הַקָּטֹ֖ן יִשְׁפּוּט֥וּ הֵֽם׃
And they ...
4
votes
1
answer
719
views
How do we know when the word ידע means intercourse or just (brain) knowledge?
I shall cite 3 verses. What I state below in terms of "plain" knowledge vs. intercourse is confirmed by Rash"i and / or other commentaries on each verse:
1 - Genesis 4:1 (excerpt):
וְהָ֣אָדָ֔ם ...
2
votes
0
answers
49
views
Is nechoshet copper, brass or bronze [duplicate]
In the bible the word נחושת means what?
I saw a few translations: copper, brass, bronze.
What is the definition of the word
2
votes
1
answer
920
views
What is the reason that the Torah uses a ן (final "Nun") at the end of 2nd person plural verbs?
Frequently, the Torah uses a final nun (ן) at the end of verbs. They seem to be 2nd person plural verbs. An example:
Deuteronomy 5:30:
בְּכָל־הַדֶּ֗רֶךְ אֲשֶׁ֨ר צִוָּ֜ה יְהוָ֧ה אֱלֹהֵיכֶ֛ם ...
2
votes
0
answers
60
views
Why does the Torah use the term עַשְׁתֵּֽי־עָשָׂ֥ר instead of אַחַ֨ד עָשָׂ֥ר for the number 11? [duplicate]
There are two places in the Torah that I can recall (if there are others, please inform me) where the term עַשְׁתֵּֽי־עָשָׂ֥ר is used for the number 11.
Numbers 7:72:
בְּיוֹם֙ עַשְׁתֵּ֣י עָשָׂ֣ר ...
4
votes
2
answers
257
views
Goy Versus Leum
The Posuk Says (Gen. 25,23):
שְׁנֵי [גיים] גוֹיִם בְּבִטְנֵךְ וּשְׁנֵי לְאֻמִּים מִמֵּעַיִךְ יִפָּרֵדוּ
Translated as: Two nations are in your womb, and two kingdoms will separate from your ...
3
votes
1
answer
63
views
Compare Devarim 14:11 and Devarim 14:20- Is there a difference in meaning between "tzipor" and "of"?
The two verses Devarim 14:11 and 14:20 appear to say the same thing except that v 11 uses the word "tzipor" and v 20 uses the word "of". Aren't they the same thing? If yes, what is the second verse ...
9
votes
2
answers
947
views
What does נְחשֶׁת mean?
In Teruma (25:3), the verse says "וְזֹאת הַתְּרוּמָה אֲשֶׁר תִּקְחוּ מֵאִתָּם זָהָב וָכֶסֶף וּנְחשֶׁת".
Chabad (as well as Artscroll) translates it as "And this is the offering that you shall take ...
2
votes
1
answer
95
views
Singular and plural language in Vaikra 10:1
In parashat shemini, chapter 10, verse 1 it is written:
וַיִּקְחוּ בְנֵי אַהֲרֹן נָדָב וַאֲבִיהוּא אִישׁ מַחְתָּתוֹ וַיִּתְּנוּ בָהֵן אֵשׁ וַיָּשִׂימוּ עָלֶיהָ קְטֹרֶת וַיַּקְרִיבוּ לִפְנֵי יְהֹוָה ...
5
votes
1
answer
128
views
“Vashti the queen” vs. “Queen Vashti”
Is there a peshat difference between the usual wording,
“ושתי המלכה”
Vashti the queen
(or “אסתר המלכה” Esther the queen),
and the wording used twice in Chapter 1 (verses 12 and 15),
“המלכה ושתי”
the ...
4
votes
2
answers
279
views
Clothing and shame, etymologically speaking
I have been unable to find an etymological connection between the root for shame בשש (especially as it turns into the forms of בושה בושת) and the word for "clothe" לבש. Shame was introduced in ...
4
votes
0
answers
78
views
How did the Parshiyot get their names [duplicate]
and what are the names' significance?
Thanks
Naomi
Duplicate of:
Where are the rules for naming parshiyot explained?
7
votes
4
answers
5k
views
Does "ki" have four meanings or one?
There is a well-known statement by Resh Lakish in Gitin (90) that
כי" משמש בד' לשונות: אי, דלמא, אלא, דהא"
"ki" expresses four meanings...
There has been discussion over the ages ...
8
votes
2
answers
258
views
Why are several Biblical characters called "man of the Lord" (Ish HaElokim), but no one in the Bible is ever "man of God" (Ish Hashem)?
Ramban makes this observation (Deut. 33:1), and says "anyone with a good intellect" can figure out the reason. Okay I'm stumped ... help me out here please?