Rashi comments to the words "Aron Ha-Elokim" in Shmuel I 14:18, saying that these words refer to the Urim Ve-Tumim. Why does Rashi understand these words to be referring to the Urim Ve-Tumim, when simply understood they refer to the Aron Ha-Kodesh? For instance, the Aron Ha-Kodesh is frequently called the Aron Ha-Elokim in Shmuel I Chapter 5.


This comment of Rashi is also the view expressed by Radak and Ralbag.

It seems to be related to the idea of inquiring of it what course of action they should take. This is like Sforno explains to Devarim 18:13 which says:

תמים תהיה: שלם עמו שגם בדרישת העתידות לא תדרוש זולתו אבל תדרוש ע''י נביא או על ידי אורים ותומים:

That was something specifically related to the Urim v'Tumim, and not the Aron HaKodesh.

  • This is a nice start, but lacks some info that would make it a full, well-rounded answer. For instance, why are we to assume there isn't a way to "inquire" of the Aron Ha-Kodesh? – ezra Feb 28 '19 at 4:10
  • @ezra I’m not sure what you are trying to bring out. The expression, “Aron of G-d” is identical. Rashi clarifies the plain meaning here through the usage expressed in the preceding sentence (פקדו-נא). The OP is asking about the usage here. – Yaacov Deane Feb 28 '19 at 12:52
  • @ezra I think he is making a link to Tamim/Tumim, if I'm understanding correctly. +1, btw – רבות מחשבות Mar 5 '19 at 3:10

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