An extension of this question.

If I have a particular girsa of davening that I have always said (either because it is an established family or shul minhag, or because I have adopted it and done it a number of times) is this a statement that other girsa'ot are invalid as means of expression to fulfill an obligation? Is my minhag a rejection of all others inherently?

If my personal practice is (and I apologize if the example isn't the best) to say "v'shivchacha elokein" at the end of kedusha, am I saying that "ushvachaha" is wrong/unacceptable, so that if I say "ushvachacha" I have not said the bracha correctly? Or is another version equally valid and my minhag is a matter of choice among equals, so, ultimately, any version I choose allows me to fulfill my obligation, regardless of a minhag-preference?

  • Please Consider adding Hebrew vowelized examples for easier understanding – Dr. Shmuel Feb 24 '19 at 12:50
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    If you skip the word entirely you fulfill your obligation. As long as the general gist is there you're fine. – Double AA Feb 24 '19 at 14:10
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    It's pretty widely accepted that when leading prayers in a different community you follow their rite. Does that answer your question? – Double AA Feb 24 '19 at 14:11
  • @DoubleAA in practical terms, yes. In understanding the role of accepting one version vis-à-vis others, I'm not sure. – rosends Feb 24 '19 at 14:46
  • @DoubleAA That might be because a leader is, well, the שליח ציבור, so it follows that he uses the Nusach they would use. Maybe he only fulfills it himself since it can’t be that he doesn’t fulfill it but causes others to fulfill it. If one is davening on his own, none of this applies. – DonielF Feb 24 '19 at 16:17

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