0

This question is a different aspect of the previous question "why-parshas-mishpatim-begin-with-laws-of-slaves".

A man that is discharged from a prison promises to never get back. A nation that was severely enslaved for hundreds of years, I assume, would want to erase the idea of slavery from its norms, namely a free Jew being a slave of another more powerful and resourceful Jew. I would also presume they would want to eradicate that idea for all nations, being "אור לגויים" - the enlightenment for all nations.

However, the first thing that G-d says to them is that they will continue that practice - selling and buying a needy and starving fellow into human slavery.

It does not sound right to me at all.

Why G-d did not promise the Jews to end slavery once and for all and why did the Jews not revolt against such laws?

  • It's quite thoughtful to compare our concept of debt slavery with the one of the gentiles on Wikipedia: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Debt_bondage – Kazi bácsi Feb 2 at 19:42
  • @Kazibácsi It says en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Debt_bondage#Classical_antiquity it was widespread in Greece and Rome, I couldn't see how different it is from the Torah's concept. – Al Berko Feb 2 at 21:46
  • "where the terms of the repayment are not clearly or reasonably stated, and the person who is holding the debt and thus has some control over the laborer, does not intend to ever admit that the debt has been repaid" – Kazi bácsi Feb 3 at 5:59

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .