In OC 320, the Shulchan Aruch discusses the prohibition of crushing on Shabbos. In §13, he rules:
דורס שלג ברגליו ואינו חושש:
One can stomp snow with his feet and not be concerned.
The Mishnah Berurah there (§39) explains:
ואף אם השלג נימוח וזב עי"ז לית לן בה כיון דהוא אינו מתכוין לזה והט"ז כתב דכיון שהוא דבר שא"א ליזהר בזה לא גזרו ביה:
Even if the snow will be smoothed or melt through this, there is no [concern] to us in it, since he doesn’t intend for this. The Taz wrote that since it’s something which one cannot be careful about, they didn’t decree on it.
To quote the Taz (DH biraglav v’eino chosheish) in full:
נראה דאע"ג דא"א שלא יהי' נימוח והוי פסיק רישיה מ"מ לא גזרו בזה כיון דא"א להזהר מזה בימות החורף דכל הארץ היא כך מלאה כפור וגליד והמנעלים הם לחים ונימס השלג שם:
It seems that even though it’s impossible that it won’t be smoothed out, and it would be a Pesik Reisha [it will definitely occur if you do this action], nevertheless they did not decree on this, since it’s impossible to be careful about this in the winter, when the entire ground is full of frost and ice, and shoes are wet and melt(?) the snow there.
According to the Mishnah Berurah, that the leniency is that it’s unintentional, does this leniency apply when there is a path that’s not covered by snow? Do we say that since one doesn’t have to trample the snow, one should avoid it (or perhaps going on the snow anyway might indicate that one intends to crush the snow)? Or once they didn’t decree in the general case, they didn’t decree in any cases and it should always be allowed?
According to the Taz, that the leniency is because it’s impossible to avoid the snow, does that mean that when it is possible to avoid the snow, one is liable for crushing it? Or, once again, once they didn’t decree in the general case, they didn’t decree in any cases and it should always be allowed?