If a married woman undergoes gender reassignment surgery(warning: explicit language is used) and hormonal treatments to become a male how would a halachic divorce be performed? Would one even be necessary?

  • Forget respecting pronouns, even “male” is now considered explicit? Ugh.
    – Oliver
    Jan 25 '19 at 3:06
  • Her cariotyp will be XY?
    – kouty
    Jan 25 '19 at 4:46
  • 2
    I don't see how this is a duplicate of the linked-to question. That asks about a former man giving a divorce; this asks about a former woman accepting one.
    – msh210
    Jan 25 '19 at 6:37
  • @kouty since when do we check the karyotype? Is it Rambam or ShuA :)?
    – Al Berko
    Jan 25 '19 at 7:29
  • You say "to become a male" but who said she becomes male Halachicly? As the very definition of sexes is very questionable so all the related Halachos. We can easily assume nothing changed and she receives Get normally.
    – Al Berko
    Jan 25 '19 at 8:36