One who transgresses Shabbos publicly has the status of a Gentile (Shulchan Aruch Y"D 2:5 and Shulchan Aruch Harav on it). Furthermore, Jews are forbidden from having relations with Gentiles.

That being the case, is it permissible for a man have relations with his wife who publicly does not safeguard Shabbos (despite having safeguarded Shabbos in the past)? Additionally, can she be trusted as regards the laws of Niddah (i.e. family purity)? (Can the husband assume that she did not have relations with another man, so she is not forbidden to him because of that?)

Any souces on the subject will be appreciated.

  • @lee thank you very much for editing my question (this applys even without anger)
    – hazoriz
    Jan 20 '19 at 15:12
  • It's important to clarify if this wife desecrates the shabbas publicly which makes things much worse,and does this person breaks shabbas l'hachis (does it with spite) or is it done l'teeavon (for.their enjoyment)
    – sam
    Jan 20 '19 at 15:50
  • @sam i wrote publicly
    – hazoriz
    Jan 20 '19 at 15:51
  • 1
    IMHO The question regarding Niddah should be submitted as a separate question.
    – Lee
    Jan 20 '19 at 15:54
  • 1
    The Ran discusses the idea that lhachis even for any aveirah one is considered a mumar,seems worse than a mechallel shabbas l'teeavon, but bit so clear there are alot of achronim that discuss this issue. Anyhow ,chillul shabbas is very specific because if one is embarrassed to do it confront of a Adam gadol they aren't considered a nochri,I am assuming that in your case it is someone who doesn't care,these little specifics (details) are imp since the achronim have diff snif lahakel
    – sam
    Jan 20 '19 at 16:06

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