If a Jewish man were to father a child with a gentile would they be allowed to consider an abortion or would that be disallowed in the Halachic literature ?

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    As in all cases, I strongly encourage you to CYLOR for practical guidance rather than relying on what you may read on this site.
    – msh210
    Sep 4, 2011 at 2:34
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    Yes as is ALWAYS THE CASE WITH ALL QUESTIONS Sep 4, 2011 at 2:42

1 Answer 1


I see no reason why it should be any different than the general discussion about abortion.

Until an embryo is implanted: of no halachic significance. You couldn't break Shabbos to save a frozen embryo, for instance.

From implantation till 40 days: Rabbi Moshe Feinstein vociferously opposed in virtually all circumstances, unless this baby is seriously threatening the life of the mother. Other poskim have some room for leniencies. I've also heard from Rabbi Weiner that at this stage it may be stricter for Jews than for non-Jews (yes you read that correctly).

40 days till 6 months: Allowed if threatening the mother; Rabbi Joseph Dov Soloveitchik allowed in the case of Tay Sachs G-d forbid.

6 months till the head emerges: Forbidden by everyone, unless threatening the life of the mother.

Head emerges: even if threatening the life of the mother, "we don't push one life in favor of another", let nature take its course.

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    Again sources for the quotes would be appreciated Sep 4, 2011 at 2:43
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    except that all these sources are referring to Jewish fetuses. Abortion is quite possible much harsher for a non-Jew, which this baby would be. See here: jlaw.com/Articles/preemb_notes.html#20
    – Menachem
    Sep 4, 2011 at 4:26
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    @Menachem, wouldn't that depend on the Jewishness of the abortionist (or person who authorizes the abortion, perhaps) rather than that of the baby?
    – msh210
    Sep 4, 2011 at 15:16
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    @msh210: Good point. There seems to be a disagreement amongst Poskim if the woman is also considered to be killing the fetus or not. From the Article: "R. Auerbach seems to rule that the patient is not simply a facilitator but is a direct violator. See Nishmat Avraham O.H. 656:1 at p. 92." . However, if she is not a direct violator than I think you would be correct, as the article continues: "It must be reiterated, however, that even if an woman is not a primary violator, she is prohibited from obtaining an abortion from either a Jewish or non Jewish physician because of lifnei ivair. "...
    – Menachem
    Sep 4, 2011 at 16:37
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    "Rabbi Joseph Dov Soloveichik allowed in the case of Tay Sachs" Source? The Tzitz Eliezer (9:51:3) is usually identified as the permissive posek in that case. I have never heard anyone quote R. Soloveitchik with such a view.
    – Curiouser
    Sep 4, 2011 at 16:53

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