4

Why according to the Nusach Ari (siddur "Tehilat Hashem") does it say "yisbareich" instead of "yisbarach" in Kaddish?

  • 2
    This should explain it. – Oliver Nov 23 '18 at 19:26
  • 1
    comes down to being a machloikes rishoinim and is discussed in kitzur sa 15 laws of kaddish, barechu, requirements of a minyan, & laws for the tzibur – Dude Dec 16 '18 at 21:10
-2

Because the verb התברך is binyan Hitpa’el, gizrah: ע׳ גרונית א, ר.

In 2nd person, masculine, future tense, the correct conjugation is Yitbareich.

If you have a question, see Sefer Luchot Po’alim by Asher Tarmone and Ezri Uval, pg. 129, table 136.

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .