I'm reading Radak's explanation to Melachim (Kings) I 8:43. He explains that King Shlomo (Solomon) requests G-d to fulfill whatever a Gentile requests (Rad"ak explains whether he deserves it or not) whereas, for Jews Shlomo says that G-d should fulfill their requests according to what is in their heart (i.e. if they are worthy of receiving their request.)
Rada"k explains that the reason is so that the Gentiles should know that G-d's name is called upon the Temple and that will give them a reason to revere G-d in the same way that Jews do.
There are some things that puzzle me about this explanation:
- Isn't the fact that the Gentile appeared to pray at the Temple already a recognition that G-d's presence is there?
- What does Rada"k mean by stating that they will rever G-d like B'nai Yisra'el does? In what way is it similar? Isn't the main way that Jews demonstrate reverence by performing G-d's mitzvoth? Is Rada"k implying that they will be more motivated to observe their 7 mitzvoth?
- Isn't common behavior that when someone knows that he can get a "freebie" from someone who is willing to give it, that person will expect a freebie the next time? I.e., if the Gentile senses that G-d is granting his wishes freely even if his behavior doesn't warrant it, wouldn't he be likely to just expect G-d to answer every request al the time without changing his behavior? Shouldn't there be some limit to G-d granting a Gentile's requests all the time?