The gemara in Sanhedrin 21 brings a discussion regarding what script the Torah was givin . One opnion holds that the Torah was given in ksav Ivri (luchos prob given in ksav ashuris according to all). Then Ezra introduced ksav ashuris and from then on only ksav ashuris would be kosher for Stam (Sifrei Torah, Teffilin,and Mezuzos). My question is what would be the status of a Torah written before Ezra introduced ksav ashuris, do we say it is passul to use since only ashuris can be used now ,or we say its kosher since it was kosher before and in a sense is grandfathered in?
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1Possible duplicate judaism.stackexchange.com/q/69026/759 judaism.stackexchange.com/q/62564/759– Double AA ♦Nov 4, 2018 at 15:37
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It's not,I'm asking about a Torah scroll written in ksav Ivri that was kosher according to everyone before Ezra– samNov 4, 2018 at 15:38
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sefaria.org/Chullin.17a.11?lang=bi&with=Rashi&lang2=en– LoewianNov 5, 2018 at 4:41
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2Does this answer your question? Can Holiness Be Retroactively Withdrawn?– magicker72May 9, 2021 at 12:54
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לכאורה, to my understanding, your question is equal to the last example/question in "Can Holiness Be Retroactively Withdrawn?" - would an ancient object written in Paleo Hebrew at a time in which those things were allowed to be written so still be holy and okay for use, right?– Harel13May 11, 2021 at 9:04
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