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There is evidence that a Jew is permitted to create a Golem (though, as @ezra points out, there is evidence the other way as well in Sanhedrin 65b). Whether or not creating one is physically possible in modern times is unclear, and it is also unclear whether the Golem of Prague actually existed.

To the extent that a Golem can be created today, is it possible for a Gentile to do so? I'm aware that the likelihood of this happening is near zero, but I'm wondering whether this is due to fundamental laws of HaShem metaphysically restricting Golem production to Jews only, or whether it is because a Gentile is practically unlikely to have sufficient motivation, education, faith, endurance, perseverance, etc. to succeed in creating a Golem.

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    Would a clone be considered a golem? I don't think "kabbalistic" ideas of creating such beings mean that there is not some physical, scientific process that goes along. For example, our Sages teach that Yaakov caused sheet to spontaneously conceive. (See Rashi Gen. 30:38 "Rabbi Hoshaya says: The water would become sperm in their innards, and they did not require a male".) – Benyomin Walters Oct 25 '18 at 17:14
  • @Benyomin I think it's a bit of a misnomer to say the Sages teach that as that's actually Rashis interpretation of the Sages. Maybe instead "According to rashi when the sages say etc they mean etc." – Orion Oct 26 '18 at 3:20
  • @Orion Rashi quotes a Midrash, and that is the simple meaning of the words in the Midrash. If we are assuming that is not literal, then why should the discussion about the Golem be literal? I certainly wasn't there to say what happened. :) My point is that a case could be made for "scientific" knowledge together with mystical powers. – Benyomin Walters Oct 26 '18 at 3:45

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