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We already discussed that Rashi was the first one to be noheg not to pass anything to his wife while she was a niddah. here
The Galya Masechet qoutes the Rambam who says here that minhagim that started after the time of the gemara are not binding. So how can the shulchan aruch and others say that it's an issur to pass to a niddah?
The truth is that he actually says they are not binding out of the jurisdiction of where they were accepted upon themselves, but he does not say that they are not binding (even) to the locale where the Minhag began. If not so, why did the Rambam bother writing in Hilchos Ishus 16:7 the Takanah from the Geonim (after the Talmud) that a woman can collect her Ketubah from movable objects (מטלטלין)? And in Hilchos Issurei Biah 11:6 that the Geonim instituted that nowadays there is no דם טוהר?
