The laining is chosen (on many holidays) to deal with the holiday, itself. As the Rambam explains,

וקוראין בעניין המועד, לא בסדר השבת. ומשה רבנו תיקן להן לישראל, שיהיו קוראין בכל מועד, עניינו; ושואלין ודורשין בעניינו של יום, בכל מועד ומועד

On the first day of Sukkot, we read a lengthy passage which closes with the mention of Sukkot. Then (outside of Israel) on the second day, we read the same thing. On the 2 yom tov days of Pesach (beginning and end) and Shavu'ot, we read different things. And it isn't like we have nothing else to read that mentions Sukkot -- we could read from Devarim 16 which mentions it as well.

So why repeat the laining on Sukkot instead of reading from Devarim?

  • The second day of Pesach already has a designated reading, even in Israel. No question can be brought from there. Every other extra diasporan day of Yom Tov gets Devarim 16 – Double AA Sep 26 '18 at 12:13
  • Devarim 16 is being read 6 days later anyway so you'd probably ask the same question if we read that. – Double AA Sep 26 '18 at 12:14
  • Actually, it seems that the original practice was to read shor o kesev on both of the first 2 days of Pesach but that minhag was changed, so the precedent for changing the second (or actually first) day of Yom Tov exists. And as to reading Dev 16 on Shmini Atzeret, that calls a different question -- why isn't the laining on S"A from Vayikra 23 as that's the spot which explicitly mentions the holiday. – rosends Sep 26 '18 at 12:34
  • ??? The Talmud lists the readings for Pesach explicitly, even with a mnemonic which if it worked well is משוך בתורא מקדש בכספא פסול במדברא שלח בוכרא which is 8 different readings – Double AA Sep 26 '18 at 12:35
  • Yes, but the Rambam writes "בפסח, בפרשת המועדות שבתורת כוהנים. וכבר נהגו העם, לקרות ביום טוב ראשון "משכו"" and Rashi seems to hint to an earlier practice in the last line of his comment on 31a " ויום טוב שני קורין כיום ראשון שור או כשב: " – rosends Sep 26 '18 at 12:46

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