1

As far as I know, in the Yemenite tradition there is a distinct sound for all consonants for the exception of Samakh and Sin. In the Wikipedia, it says that both sin and samakh are pronounced identically as /s/. However, I have found two responses here of that at least in in some sub-dialects of Yemenite Hebrew, there was exists or at least at some point existed a distinction between the two letters.

Examples of this are here and here. I've searched around the web looking to see if there was any other source that would indicate the existence of between the voiceless sibilants. After much searching, the only lead I could find of people talking about a difference was on the old teimani website chayas here as a comment from the site admin. I can't trust the source for sure but if such a distinction did exist in recent times, could any of you present me a good source that talks about the difference between samakh and sin according to the Yemenites, if it exists?

closed as off-topic by msh210 Sep 22 '18 at 20:31

This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:

  • "This question does not appear to be about Judaism within the scope defined in the help center. Note that not all questions about the Hebrew language, about history or news of the Jewish people, about Jewish individuals, or about the State of Israel are necessarily about Judaism." – msh210
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

Browse other questions tagged .