My friend showed me her conversion document. The last sentence was [almost identical to the following]: "She may marry any Jewish man except a Kohen."
Why would the conversion document go out of its way to specify that she can marry "any" Jewish man, with the single exception of a kohen? First of all, it's not necessary; second, it's not true. She can't marry, for example, a Jewish man who has another wife, even if he is a yisroel. She can't marry a Jewish man who is incapable of consent, nor one she was suspected of living with before she converted -- even if each of these men is a yisroel. (Also, I am guessing there would be some sort of pushback if she tried to marry her Jewish father, or her biological brother who also became a Jew, whether they were kohanim or yisroelim ... and I doubt I have mentioned all the exceptions.) In short, there are very many opportunities to falsify the categorical statement printed on my friend's teudat ravakut, which she received from a prominent and reliable beit din. I am therefore asking why they write it.
Does this statement have any possible effect, besides confusing the convert and potentially her future partners?