Be careful what you ask for, for you can discover answers you don't want to hear.
Well, technically the family in Judaism is very hierarchical and the children "belong" to the father and not to the mother.
The Torah says numerous times that the woman "gives the children to/for her husband":
"ויסף אברהם ויקח אשה ושמה קטורה: ותלד לו את זמרן ואת יקשן ואת מדן ואת מדין ואת ישבק ואת שוח"
"... Ketura gave birth to all the children for Avrohom"
"ויקח אהרן את אלישבע בת עמינדב אחות נחשון לו לאשה ותלד לו את נדב ואת אביהוא את אלעזר ואת איתמר"
So the woman is an instrument to bear a child for the husband. That's the reason a woman has no obligations toward her own children - neither monetary and nor Mitzvos. Father has both (see Kiddushin 29). Also, the child custody in case of a divorce is never discussed as the kids belong automatically to the father and the mother has no rights.
So back to your question - the wording sounds pretty consistent with the Jewish Halachah.