These days, it seems the term "Sephardi/Sephardic" simply refers to non-Ashkenazi Jews. However, since Greece, Balkans, and of course Spain and Portugal are a long way from Iran, Iraq, Egypt, it leaves me wondering: what are the differences between the first group and the latter one? How would practices differ between a Jew from Salonika (who presumably traces his roots to Spain) vs a Jew in Tehran?

Also, a rabbi mentioned to me that the differences could be said to be "Sefard vs Sefardi??" IDK if I misheard him or what.


1 Answer 1


The main difference between the two nusachot would be the absence of any Lurianic additions in the Spanish-Portuguese rite.

After the incident with the false messiah Shabbatai Zevi, who used Lurianic kabbalah to deceive people and justify abolishing certain mitzvot (such as brit milah), the Spanish-Portuguese communities removed any kabbalistic additions to the siddur.

Siddurim in Mizrahi communties however continue to include these emendations based on kabbalah, and never removed them from the text.

  • 1
    Although I don't know their siddurim in detail, I'm not 100% sure, especially after the Chida's siddur. Do you have any sources? Aug 5, 2018 at 7:35
  • 1
    Kazi bacsi is right sepharadic sidurim from Italia, Maroco and Alger are generally following Arizal
    – kouty
    Aug 5, 2018 at 9:34
  • @kouty And how does that contradict what I said? I said Spanish-Portuguese siddurim removed the kabbalistic emendations, not Moroccan, Italian, etc.
    – ezra
    Aug 5, 2018 at 18:30
  • The Portuguese and Spanish community were not in Portugal, but paritally in Livorno in Marocco, in Holland, in England, in Turkey
    – kouty
    Aug 5, 2018 at 18:44
  • But anyway this communities were edot hamaarav
    – kouty
    Aug 5, 2018 at 18:46

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .