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These days, it seems the term "Sephardi/Sephardic" simply refers to non-Ashkenazi Jews. However, since Greece, Balkans, and of course Spain and Portugal are a long way from Iran, Iraq, Egypt, it leaves me wondering: what are the differences between the first group and the latter one? How would practices differ between a Jew from Salonika (who presumably traces his roots to Spain) vs a Jew in Tehran?

Also, a rabbi mentioned to me that the differences could be said to be "Sefard vs Sefardi??" IDK if I misheard him or what.

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The main difference between the two nusachot would be the absence of any Lurianic additions in the Spanish-Portuguese rite.

After the incident with the false messiah Shabbatai Zevi, who used Lurianic kabbalah to deceive people and justify abolishing certain mitzvot (such as brit milah), the Spanish-Portuguese communities removed any kabbalistic additions to the siddur.

Siddurim in Mizrahi communties however continue to include these emendations based on kabbalah, and never removed them from the text.

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    Although I don't know their siddurim in detail, I'm not 100% sure, especially after the Chida's siddur. Do you have any sources? – Kazi bácsi Aug 5 '18 at 7:35
  • Kazi bacsi is right sepharadic sidurim from Italia, Maroco and Alger are generally following Arizal – kouty Aug 5 '18 at 9:34
  • @kouty And how does that contradict what I said? I said Spanish-Portuguese siddurim removed the kabbalistic emendations, not Moroccan, Italian, etc. – ezra Aug 5 '18 at 18:30
  • The Portuguese and Spanish community were not in Portugal, but paritally in Livorno in Marocco, in Holland, in England, in Turkey – kouty Aug 5 '18 at 18:44
  • But anyway this communities were edot hamaarav – kouty Aug 5 '18 at 18:46

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