3

This question may seem abstract and strange, but it is genuine.

We obviously don't have ketubot of every marriage and certificates of every conversion, but yet, our assumption is that the Jewish maternal line is pure. On what halakhic basis do we assume this?

Can we say that even if there was an invalid conversion thousands of years ago, because we don't know about it, it doesn't matter, and we will be treated as full-blooded Jews from Yaakov for the purposes of Olam haBa and Teḥiat haMeitim?

PS: What if someone wanted to perform geyur leḥumra for this very concern?

  • Indeed, some of us must be descended from the Erev Rav if you'd like to go that far back – Josh K Aug 2 '18 at 19:24
  • 4
    Chazaka is the halachik basis – kouty Aug 2 '18 at 19:25
  • 1
    When you say “pure,” you mean “How do we know that we’re all actually Jewish?” – DonielF Aug 2 '18 at 19:57
  • sefaria.org/… – Loewian Aug 2 '18 at 20:28
  • @DonielF Yes, meaning that any given maternal line either ends at a matriarch or a valid convert. – HaLailah HaZeh Aug 2 '18 at 20:31

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .