The main place the Chumash discusses laws of Kashering is after the war with Midian. One of the explanations I've seen is that this was the first battle where they captured items from a country which was not part of the future Israel (and one is allowed to eat not-Kosher food during the conquest of Israel).

But what about cooking items taken from the Egypt? And even if you'll answer that the Jews kept kosher in Egypt, (in addition to the meat vessels which became not Kosher after receiving the Torah) what about the looted cooking utensils which we looted from Egypt?

  • 3
    Maybe they didn't keep kosher at all back then before the Torah was given. That would explain why God didn't discuss the commandments they hadn't been given yet. – Double AA Jul 11 '18 at 22:22
  • They demonstrably kept kept a form of kosher, as evidenced by Yosef having the calf he served his brothers slaughtered in front of them so as to prove proper technique, but it was clearly not "our" kashrut given that apparently gentiles could schect! – Josh K Jul 11 '18 at 23:22
  • @JoshK where is that evidence? – Double AA Jul 11 '18 at 23:27
  • 1
    @DoubleAA And if they didn't, they would have to kasher their dishes when the Torah was given (unless they didn't keep Kosher at all throughout the 40 years) – Shmuel Brin Jul 11 '18 at 23:54
  • 1
    @shmuel they didn't cook the first day anyway bc of Yom Tov? What about all the other Mitzvot which became relevant right away but aren't recorded in parshat yitro? – Double AA Jul 12 '18 at 0:20

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .