My unfamiliarity with the history of the Hebrew language has created some confusion for me. I believe that that it was the Masorete editors who had added some of the vowel points and vowel markings which did not exist in the original manuscripts of the Bible.
Did the Masorete editors themselves add this "י" type symbol indicating the possessive pronoun at the end of the word that they felt was indicating my? Please let me also show a couple of examples in the Hebrew Torah to clarify my question. For example in Ezra 7:24:
וּלְכֹ֣ם מְהֽוֹדְעִ֗ין דִּ֣י כָל־כָּֽהֲנַיָּ֣א וְ֠לֵֽוָיֵא זַמָּ֨רַיָּ֤א תָרָֽעַיָּא֙ נְתִ֣ינַיָּ֔א וּפָ֣לְחֵ֔י בֵּ֖ית אֱלָהָ֣א דְנָ֑ה מִנְדָּ֤ה בְלוֹ֙ וַֽהֲלָ֔ךְ לָ֥א שַׁלִּ֖יט לְמִרְמֵ֥א עֲלֵיהֹֽם׃
Also we announce to you, that touching any of the priests and Levites, the singers, porters, Nethinim, or servants of this house of God, it shall not be lawful to impose tribute, impost, or toll, upon them.
Here the word ministers (ופלחי – Strong's H6399) has this possessive type symbol indicating the possessive pronoun at the end of the word that indicates my. Also in Leviticus 9:1 the word elders (ולזקני – Strong's H2205) has the same possessive pronoun symbol at the end of the word that indicates my.
וַֽיְהִי֙ בַּיּ֣וֹם הַשְּׁמִינִ֔י קָרָ֣א מֹשֶׁ֔ה לְאַֽהֲרֹ֖ן וּלְבָנָ֑יו וּלְזִקְנֵ֖י יִשְׂרָאֵֽל׃
And it came to pass on the eighth day, that Moses called Aaron and his sons, and the elders of Israel.
However, as I am studying the Hebrew text, I find many other words that are not indicating a possessive my. Can this "י" possession marking at the end of the words serve a different purpose? Did the Masorete editors themselves add this symbol indicating the possessive pronoun at the end of the word, or this symbol was not present to serve this purpose in the Hebrew language before them?