Leviticus 20:13 brings the prohibition of homosexuality:

וְאִ֗ישׁ אֲשֶׁ֨ר יִשְׁכַּ֤ב אֶת־זָכָר֙ מִשְׁכְּבֵ֣י אִשָּׁ֔ה תֹּועֵבָ֥ה עָשׂ֖וּ שְׁנֵיהֶ֑ם מֹ֥ות יוּמָ֖תוּ דְּמֵיהֶ֥ם בָּֽם׃

And if a man lie with mankind, as with womankind, both of them have committed abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them.

In the beginning of the verse, the Hebrew word אִישׁ is used, but later the word זָכָר is used. They seem to have the same translation to me. What is the practical difference between these two words?

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    I'd assume זכר to mean "any age" and איש to refer to one above Bar Mitzva. No clue where to look for a source, hence no answer. – Danny Schoemann Jun 6 '18 at 7:45
  • Ibn Ezra hints to androgynous people. I don't completely understand what he's saying. But, it's possible that this may be the reason for using the term zachar, as the verse may be hinting at not having relations with an androgynous. Perhaps, you or another reader can extract something from Ibn Ezra? – DanF Jun 6 '18 at 13:33
  • Sorry about that - I wrote the above comment before you mentioned which verse it was. The Ibn Ezra I refer to is for Vayikra 18:22 which uses similar language, but without the word ish. There's a part there where he mentions hermaphrodites or someone who grafts something onto the body that looks like a female organ. Thus, perhaps, this is the reason for saying zachar which means, male - thus being specific to the physical birth gender, regardless of what a person pretends to be by attaching the organ or having both organs. "To dwell on this subject any further is distasteful". – DanF Jun 6 '18 at 17:22

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