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If someone tells a non Jew I will lend you money on the condition that you convert to Judaism, (and the lender derives personal benefit from the conversion itself), Would this be considered receiving ribbis (interest) from a goy or from a Jew?

(Not to be confused with the question of lending money with interest to a non-Jew who later converts, and whether he may or may not pay past or future interest owed. I'm trying to find out if the conversion itself would be considered a non-Jew's or a Jew's interest).

  • If one says "I only lend to Jews" and the borrower converts in order to receive the loan, this is not considered ribbis. (I'm not sure if the conversion is valid, when done fore monitary reasons). In this case the condition was specific to this borrower. – RibbisRabbiAndMore May 15 '18 at 9:12
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    What about the more basic question of if this is a valid conversion? – Salmononius2 May 15 '18 at 13:44

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